kay,here is the proof
1^3=3
1^3+2^3=9
1^3+2^3+3^3=36 etc
1,9,36,100,225,441 etc
using difference theory;
for n =1,2,3........
nth term=1/4n^4+1/2n^3+1/4n^2
=n^2(1/4n^2+1/2n+1/4)
=n^2(1/2n+1/2)^2
={ n(1/2n+1/2)}^2
=k, say
now,for n=1,
k=1
for n=2
k=3^2 =(1+2)^2
for n=3
k=6^2 =(1+2+3)^2
for n=4,
k=(10)^2=(1+2+3+4)^2
for n=n,
k=(1+2+3+......n)^2
but,it has been shown that k is the
nth term for the sequence
1,9,36,100,225,441 etc
therefore,
(1^3+2^3+3^3+.......n^3)
=(1+2+3+......n)^2
if you don't follow the reasoning,
please contact me
note:the sum of 1 to n is n/2(n+1)
k is simply the square of that
k is the sum of all the cubes
from 1 to n
2006-11-11 21:59:45
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
All I'm doing is presenting essentially the same proof as a couple of previous answers, but I'll write it in a slightly different way.
Let C[n] be the the sum of the first n cubes of natural numbers.
Let Z[n] be the sum of the first first n natural numbers = n(n+1)/2
Let S[n] be Z[n] squared.
By inspection it is obvious that 1 = C1 = S1 so the equation is true for n=1
By definition C[n] = C[n-1] + n^3 (for n >1)
Also by definition Z[n] = Z[n-1] + n (for n>1)
So S[n] = (Z[n-1] + n)^2
= n^2 +2nZ[n-1] + Z[n-1]^2
= n^2 +2nZ[n-1] + S[n-1]
So
S[n-1] = S[n] - ( n^2 +2nZ[n-1] )
Using induction, we need to prove that if C[n-1] = S[n-1] then C[n] = S[n]
C[n] = S[n-1] +n^3 (by inductive hypothesis)
= S[n] - ( n^2 +2nZ[n-1] ) + n^3 .............. (1)
We also know that Z[n-1] = n(n-1)/2 so expression (1) equals
= S[n] - ( n^2 +2n2(n-1)/2) + n^3
= S[n] - ( n^2 +2n2(n-1)/2) + n^3
= S[n] - ( n^2 +n^3-n^2)) + n^3
= S[n]
So we have C[n] =S[n] for all values of n Q.E.D.
(More simply, 'why' ... 'because its a property of the way the natural numbers are defined').
2006-11-13 21:01:20
·
answer #2
·
answered by Hal W 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
There is a "proof" by picture in the source.
You can prove, using mathematical induction that
     1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n = n (n + 1) / 2
and
     1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ... + n³ = ¼ n² (n + 1)²
2006-11-12 02:50:44
·
answer #3
·
answered by p_ne_np 3
·
1⤊
0⤋
madrid, it's the natural numbers so you must start with 1, then go consecutively as far as you want and it does work.
Sorry, I don't have the proof right now but I'll work on it.
2006-11-11 20:17:33
·
answer #4
·
answered by MollyMAM 6
·
1⤊
1⤋
Dur...simple math!
Its bound to...its the CUBE of natural square!
Think about it!
2006-11-11 19:51:21
·
answer #5
·
answered by ben b 5
·
0⤊
4⤋
i don't know
2006-11-12 07:20:24
·
answer #6
·
answered by Treat 2
·
0⤊
1⤋