Is that possible? What's the timeline?
2006-11-11 01:52:30 · 5 answers · asked by funnyface 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Let me see if I understand what it is youre asking here; you want to file for divorce and then buy a house without the house actually becoming marital property. If this is so then no way. Once you file for divorce the other party is usually served (due process) within 72 hrs. Depending on how backed up the courts are depends on your court date. Then usually about 30 days after your court date the divorce is recorded and the divorce decree is offficial and the divorce is final. What youre planning on doing would put the house in as marital property but if you dont care then you could possibly do it. Good luck
2006-11-11 02:05:54 · answer #1 · answered by Arthur W 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is possible, though your attorney would probably say not advisable. Have your spouse sign a quit claim deed and at the title company, have the deed noted that you are buying it as your sole and separate property. Idaho is a community property state and that works here. In fact, I bought my house while separated, and it was no problem since he signed the quit claim deed. It needs to be notarized and recorded with the deed putting it in your name.
2006-11-11 02:14:57 · answer #2 · answered by schweetums 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sure, it is possible, but be ready to fight for the property when it comes time for the actual divorce. It is still marital property untili the divorce is finalized.
2006-11-11 01:57:44 · answer #3 · answered by JJ 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
its not adviseable. you should wait until the separation/divorce concluded legally.
2006-11-11 01:57:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course ..... even faster if everyone is at the right place at the right time.
2006-11-11 02:06:21 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋