Ok here is the deal. On this tuesday election ballot in Arizona there was a tax increase on cigarettes for some state programs.(Proposition 203) Throghout the campaign it was advertised as 80 cent/pack or $8 carton tax rate. Now on the ballot they put"By voting Yes on this proposition the state will impose a .80 cent/pack tax on each pack of cigarette.(no mention of totaling $8 carton). The propostion passed 53 to 47 percent. Now here is the question....is .80 cents same as 80 cents or is there some legal way to challange this and say I voted for .80cent and its should be 80th of a cent and not 80 cents as the proposition proposed. And since The ballot said .80 cent why should i be charged 80 cents. Confusing as it can be, anyone has a simple answer whether it is challangeable in court, if the people behind prop. 203 try to impose it as 80 cents per pack rate.
thanks
2006-11-10 17:45:59 · 8 answers · asked by raheel989 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
No. The first would be $0.008. The second would be $0.80
2006-11-10 17:53:41 · answer #1 · answered by MateoFalcone 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you want to be very precise and specific, NO! .80 is the same as 80 cents. BUT, .80 CENTS is NOT the same, it's only .80 of 80 cents......!!! Just for those of us who have to be precise & specific about everything, particularly when it comes to anything involved in an election. I, personally, quit smoking over 20 years ago so am all for all the increases on cigs they care to put on them, but there's also such a thing as being very specific particular when it comes to voters and you're very quick to have caught that because the majority of voters didn't, I'll wager. I'm in CO but people can't even SPELL, let alone read the very precise wording of a ballot issue when you're voting.
If that's what the ballot stated, time for a recall on that particular measure!!
Good on you, mate!!
2006-11-11 02:10:42 · answer #2 · answered by raquelha 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is unfortunately the problem of poor drafting and thereby giving jurisdiction to courts to look into the matter and interpret. In common parlance when u write .80 cents, it is understood that for the sake of brevity $ sign has been omitted but it should be accepted as being there all the time more so when currency sign is normally used before the numerals and afterwards.
2006-11-11 01:58:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
.80 is same as 80 cents
2006-11-11 02:38:38 · answer #4 · answered by Freesia 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.80 is eight tenths of a cent. 80 cents is eight tenths of a dollar.
2006-11-11 08:43:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2006-11-11 01:50:11 · answer #6 · answered by SeahawkFan37 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
definitly yes
2006-11-11 01:56:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you a democrat. Cause either way this is dumb.
2006-11-11 01:51:35 · answer #8 · answered by friendly advice from maine 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋