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is it true that one of the reasons for the war of 1812 with England was that our right as neutrals had been violated by England?

2006-11-10 05:32:38 · 2 answers · asked by Crazy4life 2 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

The biggest reason was that the English hadn't really resigned themselves that the colonies were gone. When impressing sailors (another, later expression is Shanghied, or kidnapped), the British officers and impressment gangs often treated them as though they were still their colonists. I stumbled across something recently about cattle rustlers, people who stole livestock, who took them to Canada to sell--if they were not English or American colony-born they were fined and sent away, but the others were hanged for treason against "the crown". After the Battle of New Orleans, which the British lost so badly a few weeks after the Armistice was signed, England then resigned itself to dealing with a separate nation. Although and Armistice is a glorified ceasefire, this one effected the direct recognition of the US as a soveriegn country, which had not happened before.

2006-11-10 06:40:28 · answer #1 · answered by Rabbit 7 · 0 0

Yup, it's probably the main reason.

2006-11-10 13:48:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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