English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories
2

is it true that under the Monroe Doctrine European powers were allowed to intervene in the affairs of independent countries in Latin America?

2006-11-10 03:56:15 · 2 answers · asked by loca 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

No, it expressed the US opinion that European powers should no longer colonize America or interfere with the affairs of sovereign nations located in America, such as the United States of America, Mexico, Latin America, and others. The United States planned to stay neutral in wars between European powers and in wars between a European power and its colonies. However, if these latter type of wars were to occur in the Americas, the United States would view such action as hostile toward itself.

The doctrine was issued by President James Monroe during his seventh annual State of the Union address to Congress. It was met first with enthusiasm. This was a defining moment in the foreign policy of the United States.

The doctrine was conceived by its authors, especially John Quincy Adams, as a proclamation by the United States of moral opposition to colonialism, but has subsequently been re-interpreted in a wide variety of ways, including by President Theodore Roosevelt as a license for the U.S. to practice its own form of colonialism (known as the Roosevelt Corollary to the Monroe Doctrine.)

2006-11-10 04:18:50 · answer #1 · answered by Answerer17 6 · 2 0

you can find this here as i hope:

http://www.answers.com/topic/monroe-doctrine

2006-11-10 12:02:30 · answer #2 · answered by snns_m 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers