2006-11-09
22:18:48
·
6 answers
·
asked by
joe
3
in
Social Science
➔ Economics
I knew a rich woman, she employed people, towards the time of paying salary, she will terminate their appointment without benefit not even the very month or day worked. She had MONEY. A man, had many bank accounts in foreign banks, yet MANY people worked for him for months no salaries were paid to them. Reasons, "I will pay later and later never comes" can you, a poor man take such person to court of law? etc. ( i am asking question from experience).
2006-11-10
17:25:05 ·
update #1