They get to vote in both there country of living AND their country of origin....is that fair? Surely it should be one or the other!...Strangely even people born here appear to get this right....do you remember the people of Iraqi origin interviewed on the news on the day of the Iraqi elections? Some were born here and had never even been there, yet were allowed to vote as well as being given the right to vote in this country......Why?
2006-11-09 21:39:18 · 12 answers · asked by kbw 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
Unlike most other countries, dual citizenship is not legal in the US. In fact, naturalized citizens can have their citizenship revoked if it could be proven that they owe allegiance to another country. Unfortunately if one was born in the US it is very difficult to do the same.
Dual allegiances is wrong, as well as unethical.
2006-11-09 23:08:47 · answer #1 · answered by Carl 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because what if you move between countries? I was born in Germany and currently reside in the US, but I return quite often. Does that mean I shouldn't be allowed to vote in both countries? It's not like anyone gets 2 votes in one country. I have to live under both laws part of the time, so I should get to vote in both, even if my primary home ins in the US.
2006-11-10 06:36:45 · answer #2 · answered by Bee 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is fair. If they are entitled to dual citizenship, it means they participate in both countries. So they have 1 vote for each country, and really votes count for each country, it doesn't affect the elections in the US if the person voting has voted elsewhere too and vice versa.
2006-11-10 05:48:38 · answer #3 · answered by cpinatsi 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The rule is 'one person one vote IN EACH ELECTION'. I am a shareholder in more than one company, so I get more than one vote in total- but only one in each company.
If you have an interest (ie if you have dual nationality you have an interest in keeping both your current and old countries well run), you should be able to vote; I personally get more worried about rich people who get to influence policy by funding election campaigns. That is one person having an undue say.
2006-11-10 05:51:26 · answer #4 · answered by squeezy 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That's interesting because as far as I know, although I have dual British and Irish nationality, I can only vote in the country I am primarily resident in (i.e. Ireland at the present).
2006-11-10 05:55:28 · answer #5 · answered by crosbie 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Logic at times does not win. But, why would you use the word "fair". Things are seldom fair. As long as they only have 1 vote here I don't care where else they vote.
2006-11-10 05:43:53 · answer #6 · answered by madjer21755 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that's one of the political correctness. they shouldn't let them vote especially if they were born in the other country...but who cares, just wake up that's how the government run these days...
2006-11-10 05:52:38 · answer #7 · answered by Simply_Me 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are not voting for the same government.
2006-11-10 06:57:32 · answer #8 · answered by wondermom 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
c'mon be real and stop acting like a geek... one vote doesnt really make that much of a difference... if you're thinking its more about prinicple then study law and enter WORLD politics to make a difference...
2006-11-10 05:45:00 · answer #9 · answered by elspringster 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You answered your own question... 'dual nationality' gives them the right!
2006-11-10 05:45:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋