These days i am reading the book Thus Spake Zarathustra, by Friedrich Nietzsche. Difficult is the book, i think, many for me need explaining. The following is one from it:" I would fain bestow and distribute, until the wise have once more become joyous in their folly, and the poor happy in their riches." Would you please explain the sentence to me? I will greatly appreciate if you give explanations in simple English and some example. Thank you.
2006-11-09 16:56:31 · 8 answers · asked by Walter Z 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
The previous line: Lo! I am weary of my wisdom, like the bee that hath gathered too much honey; I need hands outstretched to take it.
The latter line: Therefore must I descend into the deep: as thou doest in the evening, when thou goest behind the sea, and givest light also to the nether-world, thou exuberant star!
2006-11-09 17:23:15 · update #1
Thank you, alblanco00. You present me a really wonderful advice.
2006-11-09 19:17:47 · update #2
He is speaking of the wise people as fools and the poor people as rich. He says he would give and give (or work forever) to make them see this truth.
A lot of great literature references such ideas. As in the rich are poor in spirit. The wise are troubled and the fools live happily without knowledge
2006-11-09 20:42:32 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a hard one but you have to include the previous line to understand it.
Lo! I am weary of my wisdom, like the bee that hath gathered too much honey; I need hands outstretched to take it.
I would fain bestow and distribute, until the wise have once more
become joyous in their folly, and the poor happy in their riches.
Zarathustra, after meditating for 10 years is now ready to come out into the world and spread his message (concerning the over-man).
But the addition of "in their folly" and "poor happy in their riches" shows that he has doubts as to weather the people will understand.
2006-11-09 17:03:53 · answer #2 · answered by Al 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've not read this, so I don't know the context. However, fain means "gladly" or "is prepared to". The last part of the sentence talks about wise being joyous in their folly (mistakes) and the poor in their riches. Now use the context to figure what he meant with contrasting things in that way.
2006-11-09 17:06:18 · answer #3 · answered by Yumicho 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
he is saying that he is tired of having all of his knowledge and "would gladly share it with anyone. Give it until wise people feel happy about what they now know and until the poor are glad for that they do have a feel rich even though they are not" fain means gladly or eager
2006-11-09 17:32:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the plainest english I can muster... I have a message to share, but I'm reluctant to share it in fear that it may be misconstrude(or taken the wrong way.)
2006-11-09 17:54:08 · answer #5 · answered by Rae` 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"I would like to share what I know until the rich began to learn to enjoy themselves again, and the poor learn how to enjoy what they've got."
2006-11-09 22:32:48 · answer #6 · answered by silver.graph 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would not wish to run my mouth, bc smart people don't realize how dumb they can be, and unfortunate people don't realize how much they truly have?
2006-11-09 16:59:29 · answer #7 · answered by chelleedub 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You are plain out of luck with this one.
2006-11-09 17:06:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋