Can anyone tell me the definition of contempt regarding divorce orders. Filed motion, served subpoena, went to hearing with proof of the violations of the order. One is a police report and another is an unpaid bill. The judge said there wasn't a preponderance of evidence proving the contempt. What was I missing? Could someone explain how the judge came to the conclusion that my ex wasn't in contempt by breaking the rules of the order? My ex had lots of excuses as he always does, but not a shred of "evidence" to back his words up.
2006-11-09 12:37:30 · 2 answers · asked by Amangela 4 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
I would assume that one or two incidents do not add up to contempt, but a documented pattern of obvious abuse of the rules does. It also depends on what he did that you qualified as contempt. If he lost his job and missed a few payments, or missed a weekend, that can easily be contributed to factors beyond his control. It depends on what the "contempt" actually is.
2006-11-09 12:42:25 · answer #1 · answered by Justsyd 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Look up the Maine law on what constitutes " preponderance of evidence" sounds to me like it was a weak situation and the Judge didn't want to hear it or screw the guy.. Is he the Judges relative or friend of a relative..Sounds to me like another hick judge in maine. and there are alot of them there..Good Luck to you hope you make out better next time..
2006-11-09 12:43:41 · answer #2 · answered by flashrtp 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋