Women were not allowed to be in public office or vote in those days. The only powerful women in those days were the wives of the president, and not very powerful at that.
American women were not given the vote until 1920.
2006-11-09 14:17:55
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answer #1
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answered by Shelley 3
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Don't know much about history, do you? In 1776, women were basically property much like in Medieval times. Fathers arranged "good matches" for their daughters, which had nothing to do with love. A good match was a man that had money and a respectable job. Women did not refuse or they could have been cut off from the family and turned out into the street where there was little opportunity for her to survive on her own without resorting to illegal activity. It was done, but it was rare. A father still had to offer a considerable dowry for a man to marry his daughter, which was little more than a payoff. Women did not vote and were not expected to offer opinions on such "complicated matter." They were thought of as too delicate to be involved in things outside of raising children and caring for the house. George III would have laughed out loud if he had seen women's name on the Declaration.
2006-11-09 19:58:29
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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During the time period of the Declaration of Independence, white males where consideredd supreme, essentially, so there were still African slaves and women were barely considered above slaves, so they had no rights and simply obeyed the men in their lives, such as father, brother, or husband...generally they did not get to choose their husband, either, unless their father was unique and really nice, or something along those lines
2006-11-09 20:09:30
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answer #3
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answered by BabyFace 2
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In those days women were not allowed to vote or own property on there own.
2006-11-09 19:51:04
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answer #4
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answered by Dr. NG 7
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yes...women didnt even have the vote until 1920
2006-11-09 19:51:02
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answer #5
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answered by koalatcomics 7
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YES
2006-11-09 19:51:31
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answer #6
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answered by cork 7
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