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12 answers

I believe so. The formula for momentum is mass * velocity. If your mass is zero or velocity is zero, this will make your kinetic energy zero as well (formula for kinetic energy is 1/2 * Mass * velocity squared). Momentum and kinetic energy both deal with movement.

2006-11-09 09:24:30 · answer #1 · answered by eyp 2 · 2 0

What are the formulas for momentum and kinetic energy? Show me those, I don't remember, and I'll tell you the answer to your question.

momentum = mass * velocity
kinetic energy = 1/2 mass * velocity squared
plug in zero and the answer in either case is zero

2006-11-09 09:24:55 · answer #2 · answered by OU812 5 · 0 0

I have to say no. For one, if you do something like extend your arms symmetrically, they both have some kinetic energy, but the total momentum remains zero. Moreover, all the energy you have owing to your temperature is the kinetic energy of the molecules in your body.

2006-11-09 09:25:43 · answer #3 · answered by misiekram 3 · 0 0

It is. kinetic energy = (1/2)mv^2 = (1/2m)(mv)^2 = (1/2m)p^2

If you are looking at something with mass, kinetic energy is directly proportional to momentum squared .

Massless particles always have kinetic energy and momentum...

So the answer is yes. K=0 <==> p=0.

2006-11-09 09:35:24 · answer #4 · answered by Biznachos 4 · 0 0

Yes.

Momentum = (mass)(velocity)

Kinetic energy = 1/2 (mass) * (velocity)squared

If momentum is zero, that means that either mass or velocity is zero. Multiplying by zero results in zero.

2006-11-09 09:29:23 · answer #5 · answered by Don E 4 · 0 0

Kinetic energy (KE) is your moving energy & momentum is a "state" of movement: thus i'll think if your momentum is zero (ur kinetic energy should change to potential energy) then ur KE is inexistant.

2006-11-09 09:30:12 · answer #6 · answered by raqandre 3 · 0 0

Yes, but only if measured in the same coordinate reference system. For a given mass, if v = 0, then V^2 = 0------> M = 0 = KE

2006-11-09 09:36:06 · answer #7 · answered by Steve 7 · 0 0

Yes. Your potential energy would not be. Kinetic energy is that which is actually being expended.

2006-11-09 09:25:35 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

momentum = m*v (m<>0 then v=0)
KE = 0.5 m*v = 0.5*m* 0 = 0

Yes

2006-11-09 10:12:32 · answer #9 · answered by Dr. J. 6 · 0 0

Really not sure about this one

2016-08-08 19:02:18 · answer #10 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

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