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44 answers

Unless its a private road - the city owns that!

2006-11-09 08:42:38 · answer #1 · answered by Mike 3 · 1 2

Yes an no!

If the city has accepted it as a road, then you probably do not!

If it hasn't been accepted and the don't maintain, usually you do.

Roads come in two types: public or private.
If a road is private, it is owned by one or more citizens. You must get their permission to use the road. Private also means the owner(s) pay for maintenance.
If a road is public then it also can be two types: government owned or an open public road. Government owned means government is responsible for keeping it up. Although it may seem odd, open public roads do not carry that same charge.
Open public roads exist when the public has been using the road for ten years or more. Courts can establish public right of use although the underlying landowner has granted no rights-of-way.
Government owned roads are the most common. The federal government owns roads serving national forests, parks and dams. State governments own most of the highways between cities and towns and the Interstate highways. Cities and counties own the local roads. Government roads normally have rights-of-way dedicated for roads and utilities. Government
roads also have some type of access control. Adjacent owners must get permission from the agency road owner before they build a driveway onto the road. Private access to the Interstate
and some other highways is not allowed at all. Federal and state highways almost always depend on local roads for access from private property.

2006-11-09 08:44:58 · answer #2 · answered by cantcu 7 · 0 0

in the UK the highway normally extends from physical boundary to physical boundary including any footpath or verge, however the highway is a right of way not ownership of the land, it is rare for the land over which the highway passes to be owned by the council except when the land has been purchased specifically for building a new road. In the absence of any other claim to ownership common law in our country would dictate that you do own to the middle of the road, this is rarely shown on deeds and doesn't need to be but may show on the odd old property. A word of caution if you do own it you cant touch it as the highway rights supersede those of the owner, the only right you have is like any other member of the public and that is to pass and repass along it. there are only 2 ways of extinguishing highway rights, firstly the council can apply to the magistrates court to have the rights removed, in doing so the land reverts to the owner, and there is a way through planning law but i know little of this.

2006-11-11 10:49:31 · answer #3 · answered by grahamralph2000 4 · 0 0

No, actually it is the other way around. The city, county, state or federal government owns the property from the edge of the road onto your property as far as the easement states for the type of road. Here, the county owns the property 14 foot on either side of the road, it differs from city, county and state, so check your local laws...

2006-11-09 08:44:36 · answer #4 · answered by Suthern R 5 · 1 0

Look at a copy of your deeds. In England the answer can be Yes.
Where I live my deeds show my land running forward of my physical property, to include the footpath and half of the public highway. However, this doesn't mean that you have control.
The local Authority owns the Road and Footpath that passes over it. Its just a legal thing, that some one must own the land.
I even know of a situation, where one house owns the entire road and the local authority just picks up the maintenance.

2006-11-10 22:57:18 · answer #5 · answered by WavyD 4 · 0 0

If you are in England or Wales, you may well do, even if it's a public highway (try googling "ad medium filum viae"). But because of the rights given to local authorities, utility suppliers and so on by Highways Acts etc over the years, the ownership is so theoretical that the Land Registry won't include the road within your title plan, even if old deeds prepared before titles had to be registered show ownership up to the centre line.

2006-11-10 13:13:18 · answer #6 · answered by andrew f 4 · 0 0

No. If you check your deeds there should be a plan of your area in them and the area you have bought will be highlighted. This generally includes your house, front garden and path to the rear of the property (or half if you share an alleyway with a semi or terraced property) and your back garden with the fences you are responsible for highlighted. Usually though not always one side and the bottom fence. You may strike lucky and only be responsible for one side fence. The public pathways around your house and streets are just that!, Public!

2006-11-09 08:47:53 · answer #7 · answered by witchealer 3 · 0 0

You do not even own up to the road. Most villages own the first 3 - 6 feet of your yard from the road (where there is normally a side walk). This is for future plainning in case they want to widen the road, add under ground utilities or install walk ways.

2006-11-09 08:46:19 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

You will need to check with your local zoning office. The road I live on originally 60 feet were designated for the township to put in the road. In other words a right of way to allow for future widening etc. Unfortunately they installed the road at the far side of the 60 feet therefore technically the township has a right of way that extends 30 feet into my yard. Good luck

2006-11-09 13:34:53 · answer #9 · answered by fortyninertu 5 · 0 0

15 feet from the middle of the road starts your property

2006-11-09 08:51:30 · answer #10 · answered by debbie2243 7 · 0 0

No, the city (or other municipality) owns the road. Your property extends to the road (although, sometimes your property may stop short of the edge of the road. This area is called the "right-of-way" and is also owned by the city. It may include a drainage ditch, telephone poles or a sidewalk).

2006-11-09 08:44:33 · answer #11 · answered by trigam41 4 · 0 1

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