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Homosexuality is considered genarally admissible (al teast by the liberal western world)

Incest (I am talking about one between two consenting adults who are related) is considered illegal.

Please don't read this as anything to do with my personal life. I am a straight man who is skeptical whether either of them are genetic traits.

I find homosexuality acceptable, but consider incest as disgusting.

Is there really any difference? Of course, having inbred children is not good for the society, but taking that fact out, are the two very different? Should we treat them completely differently and have completely different laws?

It isn't all our personal feeling and opinons (of disgust and acceptance of a certain practice) just influenced by society, specifically by certain individuals who can create that influence?

I am sure this is going to touch a lot of nerves!

2006-11-09 08:31:43 · 8 answers · asked by Existentialist_Guru 5 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

To everbody saying I am comparing apples to oranges:

The question here is the sexual behavior of consenting healthy, metally sound, adult individuals. Currently the society grades them as follows:

1) Heterosexual relations between two individuals who differ in genetic makeup at a certain pre-defined level (3nd cousins might be ok) - Grade A
2) Homosexual relations between two individuals who differ in genetic makeup at a certain pre-defined level - Grade B
3) Heterosexual or Homosexual relations between two individuals who have very similar genetic makeup - Grade C

There are different laws based on these rankings

Now is there is rational, scientific reasoning behind these rankings?

The question here is about sexual behavior, period. Don't give apple vs. oranges argument. It is weak.

If homosexuality is indeed genetically determined, do we have enough proof that incestuous behavior is not?

2006-11-09 09:11:44 · update #1

8 answers

The acceptability of both is certainly culturally defined. While I will not issue an opinion on either, I am certainly willing to discuss the logic behind the various opinions often presented on the topic. One argument is that of religion. I will set aside the flawed logic of religion in general for the purpose of this discussion. If we seek to examine this issue within the context of our society's laws, we must examine the issue absent of religion...due to the separation of church and state.

Religious issues set aside, we are left with the argument as it relates to the potential for the production of children with genetic birth defects. While incestuous breeding can arguably be linked to a increase in the likelihood of genetic birth defects, I do not see this alone as a reason to outlaw incestuous relationships. Consider this: If we were to outlaw a relationship between two individuals that had a higher likelihood of producing offspring with genetic birth defects (this, as well, is culturally defined to a certain degree), we would have to outlaw relationships between two consenting adults who are not related but both happen to have a genetic birth defect of their own. The answer above mine also raises the valid point that gay incestuous relationships would be exempt from this concern as well.

If we cannot outlaw it due to religion, and we cannot outlaw it because of the likelihood of producing genetic birth defects, then what is left? I would say that the only remaining argument would be that an incestuous relationship challenges our society's very definition (some would say "institution") of family, and what roles a family is intended to play. However, many have argued that homosexual relationships (specifically marriages) challenge our society's definition of marriage, yet our society is more readily accepting of homosexuality than it is of incest.

Therefore, I fail to find a logical argument supporting any law against incest. This of course assumes that the relationship is between consenting adults of sound mind and legal age.

2006-11-09 08:54:01 · answer #1 · answered by Kevin P 3 · 0 0

Lets see now, by your understanding of logical inference, since apples, oranges, brussels sprouts, and chicken wings are all food, and even though some taste better than others, there isn't really any difference. What a round about way to mask your real prejudice where gays are concerned, yet to see if you can promote the same prejudice in others through activating what you hope are innate feelings of some mutual forms of disgust.

Your motives are as transparent as the facade over your ignorance. Do you think people don't or won't know that the bans against incest are based on the observed adverse effects of inbreeding.
Or is it somehow your subliminal message that homosexuality is the result of incestuous behavior?
Try and prove that one statistically or otherwise.

And the inferences added in your attempt to solve the problems in your initial presentation by the "additional comments" are just as idiotic and untenable and patently ridiculous

2006-11-09 09:31:45 · answer #2 · answered by Grist 6 · 0 0

They are two different issues, and generally opposed for different reasons. Remember that all laws must assert some legitimate interest or valid govt goal. So, the question is, what govt goals do each of those prohibitions assert or promote.

Incest is banned becuase it has a tendency to produce genetically damaged children. This is harm to society, because society must then care for these genetically damaged children. That isn't religion, it's science. Thus, there is a non-religious reason for banning children from incestuous relationships, and the simplest way to do that is to ban incestuous relationships altogether.

Same-sex relationships cannot produce children naturally. So, there is no issue of producing genetically damaged children. Some argue that same-sex relationships should be banned for religious reasons. That's fine, but in the US we cannot pass laws who sole justification is religious. There must be some goal that is non-religious. And because everyone has the right to not have children, the govt cannot ban a relationship solely because the couple is incapable of bearing children.

Two different and unrelated issues.

2006-11-09 08:38:36 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 6 1

Doesn't touch a nerve at all, I'm just wondering why you can't understand the difference -- incest is sex with a close family member(of either sex) and homosexuality is sex with a person of the same sex. There can be no children from a homosexual relationship.

Of course there is a difference. It is simple, and has nothing to do with personal feelings.

2006-11-09 08:38:50 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

To each his own in my opinion,I don't care what others do behind closed doors so long as they aren't hurting anyone in the process.

2006-11-09 08:42:50 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Incest is a crime, homosexual acts aren't necessarily.

2006-11-09 09:21:07 · answer #6 · answered by rhymingron 6 · 0 0

seek help quick

2006-11-09 08:39:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

both make me want to vomit.

2006-11-09 08:34:37 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

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