English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Given that the act declares any federal taxes illegal, and that the act cannot ever be changed by the canadian federal government only by a referundum, which has never taken place. How does the federal government get away with things such as federal income tax, gst and import duties?...

2006-11-09 08:11:06 · 4 answers · asked by manx4080 3 in Politics & Government Government

4 answers

From my understanding the BNA act grated sovereignty to Canada, being that it declared it a self governing nation.

With regards tot he taxation system it was declared that no further taxation shall be imposed by the British governing forces as Canada is it's own nation.

2006-11-12 05:04:41 · answer #1 · answered by smedrik 7 · 0 0

That's a really interesting question.

While I am no legal scholar, I do know the BNA of 1867 is the foundation of the Constitution of Canada - but was last updated and re-named as such in 1982. Though our British heritage is an important part of our history, we are a sovereign nation. Canada was most likely forbade to collect federal taxes because such taxes were probably going to the English. Today we would not allow the Crown of Britain to control the running of our country and that may be why there is not such a reverence for something written in the British North America Act today.

The question of how exactly the federal government gets away with it? Precedent. The interpretation of old articles like constitutions are up to the discretion of our governments. And if everyone's going along with it... then there's not really much of a case against it.

If you really think about it all of these things stand on ceremony and the power of positions & words are only real if people believe in them and obey them.

2006-11-11 16:29:32 · answer #2 · answered by ty_c02 1 · 0 0

I believe it was largely because Germany instituted compulsory military service sometime after its unification in 1871. Also some people were somewhat unsatisfied with the government and found that industrialization was coming too quickly, especially farmers in Germany felt this way. This is why many Germans went to the midwestern United States after they immigrated because many were farmers. As for the German language, their are a few places in various states that have German city names, etc., but the speaking of German was never took off because they were very interested in assimilating, that was very important to the immigrants to the U.S. esp starting in the 1850s when the U.S. went through a period of Nativism, it which the Old "Yankee" Americans looked very uncomfortably onto immigrants (just an FYI, esp. those who were Catholic) Hope this helps a little, its not very specific but should give you an idea.

2016-05-22 01:05:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Deception, coercion, etc..

2006-11-11 07:02:07 · answer #4 · answered by Truyer 5 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers