Ie if say only 10% of the nation voted would that stand as a result?
Is it the same in USA as it is in the UK?
2006-11-09 07:32:58 · 8 answers · asked by bogstandard 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
In the United Kingdom general elections of 2001 and 2005, it was calculated that only 25% and 22% of the electorate actually voted for the Labour Party (who won the elections with majorities of 160 and 66 respectively).
In UK elections there are no rules stating at which point an election become valid, but most people assume that if national turnout fell below 50%, questions would be raised about the validity of the election in question.
2006-11-11 08:16:11 · answer #1 · answered by Harry Hayfield 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both the US and UK (unlike several East European countries) have no such constitutional stipulation. They do however provide ample polling stations and encourage all to vote (if only to keep the big two-to-three parties at the top of the heap).
I think it is good this way, as the alternative of an election that was recalled for low turnout followed by a second one with an even lower turnout that was also repealed, and the third one too is a scary thing - and as everybody has the right and the opportunity to vote the first time around, and nobody should be forced to vote, nor be able to overturn the outcome.
Turnout is always 100% if you include those who chose not to go and vote (and those who did not vote for any candidate), and why force them to get involved in political matters against their will?
2006-11-12 05:23:42 · answer #2 · answered by Wise Kai 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if the laws on the conduct of elections specify the %.
Neither the US congress or UK parliament have passed such laws, although the Uk did have such a stipulation regardign the referendum for scots devolution
2006-11-12 21:00:19 · answer #3 · answered by georgieporgie2005uk 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We count them all here some districts are more conservative will other are democrat and some areas are well communist so they count every vote because the skewed areas of the way people live in areas based on politics.
2006-11-09 08:10:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No one person can vote and it will be official, as far as I know, I dont really know about the UK.
2006-11-09 07:38:00 · answer #5 · answered by asmith1022_2006 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It would stand in England,have no idea about the USA.
2006-11-10 05:47:46 · answer #6 · answered by Ollie 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not for elected positions. Sometimes for things like School bonds, you do.
2006-11-09 07:36:09 · answer #7 · answered by Take it from Toby 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it would have to
2006-11-09 07:35:58 · answer #8 · answered by Star 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋