English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

let G be a group of prime order with identity e. Suppose f:G --> G
is a homomorphism such that f( a ) not equal to e for some, a, that belongs to G. completely prove that f is an isomorphism.

2006-11-09 07:29:45 · 2 answers · asked by David F 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

yes and no

2006-11-09 07:38:29 · answer #1 · answered by tallmochagirl 4 · 0 0

Let say f trivial if f: G -> G so that f(x)=1 for every x belongs to G.

f homomorphism => f(G) and Kerf are subgroups of G.
G of prime order implies (according to Lagrange's theorem) that its only subgroups are {1} and G itself.
If f isn't trivial Kerf /= G (not equal) so Kerf={1} and f is injective.
On the other side f not trivial implies f(G) /= {1} therefore we have
f(G)=G and f is surjective. So f is an isomorphism.

Excuse me, but my english is so weak.

2006-11-09 07:42:14 · answer #2 · answered by bigivan_50 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers