In Medea, Medea kills both her sons. We know that she does this to seek revenge against Jason after he leaves her for the princess. It can also be inferred that another theme of the story is feminism. Is there textual evidence within the story that can show that Medea killed her two children to make a statement advocating equal rights? That she used her two sons as martyrs forequal rights?
2006-11-09 06:06:45 · 2 answers · asked by fishyball00 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Mythology & Folklore
I think it was expression of passionate and hopeless love. Don't see anything feministic in this story
2006-11-09 07:28:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Inference can be assumed by anyone for any reason. The fact is that Medea was a misguided, jealous woman who had such a love/hate relationship with Jason that she wanted to do the ultimate hurt to him. She was not "mother of the year."
Nothing textual is evidenced within the story indicating equal rights. Of course, that does not say that an instructor, teacher, or professor with her/his biases will not turn this into a vehicle to expand her/his own personal bias.
2006-11-09 15:23:23 · answer #2 · answered by Donald W 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋