2006-11-09 01:55:44 · 8 answers · asked by Chris S 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
-50
2006-11-09 02:05:46 · answer #1 · answered by Sean 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
-50.
You can group them together like so:
(1-2)+(3-4)+(5-6)+... etc.
Each parentheses will have an answer of -1. Because it takes 2 numbers to form the -1, and there are 100 total, (100/2)*-1= 50*-1=-50.
2006-11-09 02:06:07 · answer #2 · answered by shortstuf_2 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
50
2006-11-09 02:00:16 · answer #3 · answered by shagun 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
grouped like this: 1+(-2+3)+(-4+5).... = 1+1+1...=infinity
grouped like this: (1-2)+(3-4)+(6-6)... = -1-1-1...=-infinity
so the series switches between ever increasing possitive and negative values. But then you could have figured that out by doing the arithmatic (1,-1,2,-2,3,-3.......)
2006-11-09 02:15:19 · answer #4 · answered by cheme54b 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Write the sequence backwards below itself: a million 2 3 ........................ one hundred one hundred ninety 9 ninety 8 ....................... a million (can no longer do it good in right here, yet i think of you recognize what I propose.) each and each vertical pair of numbers provides as much as one hundred and one. There are one hundred pairs. the completed is for this reason one hundred*one hundred and one/2 = 10100 / 2 = 5050. in case you replace one hundred by potential of n, the type of words interior the final case, you get n(n+a million)/2 for the sum of all integers from a million to any extensive type n.
2016-12-28 17:00:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
-50
2006-11-09 02:10:53 · answer #6 · answered by heinlein 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
this is equal to
(1+3+5+......)-(2+4+6+9.......)
2006-11-09 02:08:04 · answer #7 · answered by Syed R 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Blah blah blah.
2006-11-09 01:58:03 · answer #8 · answered by Gone fishin' 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋