how should linearized acceleration vs. mass graph be equivalent to the net force? and how can the slope of the acceleration vs. net force graph be equivalent to one over the mass? please explain (in simple terms due to continually brain damage for the last few weeks @_@)
would be thankful for any answers
2006-11-08 14:41:08 · 2 answers · asked by mooshie 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
i already ploted the graphs, i just need the reason why a linearized acceleration vs. mass graph should be equivalent to the net force and why the slope of the acceleration vs. net force graph should be equivalent to one over the mass...and my % error is all messed up (91%) please help >_<
2006-11-08 14:48:53 · update #1
y = mx is the general equation for a straight line on cartesian coordinates. So F = ma is also similar with m as the slope, a as the independent variable and F as the dependent variable even though physically this makes no sense. So just plot it on the coordinate system now...
Ayerhs.
2006-11-08 14:45:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Force = mass*acceleration
2006-11-08 23:01:48 · answer #2 · answered by arbiter007 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋