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2006-11-08 14:25:05 · 9 answers · asked by kam0361 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

9 answers

infinity could be ANY number

if infinity(1) is 32,767 and infinity(2) is 868, the division does not equal one. I just chose random numbers for that example.

2006-11-08 14:33:58 · answer #1 · answered by Richard H 7 · 0 0

Define Infinity! Literally:
in‧fin‧i‧ty  /ɪnˈfɪnɪti/ –noun, plural -ties.
1. the quality or state of being infinite.
6. Mathematics.
a. the assumed limit of a sequence, series, etc., that increases without bound.
b. infinite distance or an infinitely distant part of space.

Theoretically:
Infinity is an abstract value for a number so high it cannot be defined. Thus, one theoretical "infinity" may be greater than another theoretical "infinity".

Alternately, lets assume that infinity is defined as a never ending value, ever expanding. If this is true, no other value could ever be equal to this value for infinity. Thus, infinity could never be divided by infinity.

2006-11-08 14:39:21 · answer #2 · answered by Steiphyn Daemon 2 · 0 0

As others have said, infinity is only a notion. You can have many ways of approaching infinity --- counting integers for one, or counting the number of points between zero and one on the number line. Say you have 2x in the numerator and x^2 in the denominator. Both individually tend to infinity as x tends to infinity. But the ratio tends to zero because
2x / x^2 = 2 / x
and this tends to zero as x tends to zero. So the statement 'infinity/infinity' does not have any meaning unless you specify how the two infinities are approached. In fact there are infinite ways of approaching infinity. It might interest you to know that
x^n / e^x tends to zero as x tends to infinity, however large a number n may be.

2006-11-08 14:50:31 · answer #3 · answered by muten 2 · 0 0

here is a more practical and easier to understand reason why.
The following is the layman argument a german mathemetician used.

2 infinities are not necessarly equal... for example the set of all numbers is infinatly large as is the set of all even numbers. However these 2 infinities are not equal. Using a 1 to 1 correspondence we can see:

Set of all integers: 1,2,3,4.....
Set of all even integers: 2,4,6,8, ....
the 1 to 1 correspondence shows that even though both sets are infinite that they are not equal. so infinity over infinity does not equal 1.

Interesting side note.. The german mathematican who wrote this was ridiculed by the mathematics community so harshly that he eventually went insane. Only within the last 100 years was he vindicated and proven correct.

2006-11-08 14:51:22 · answer #4 · answered by travis R 4 · 0 0

because infinity is a word used to describe a value for a number. Infinity is not a number, but it represents an extremely high number that nobody could ever count up to. Therefore it would not equal one

2006-11-08 14:28:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As others say infinity is perhaps just numbers. We say infinity for very very huge numbers. So infinity divided by infinity is not zero or one but in-determinant.

2006-11-08 15:41:09 · answer #6 · answered by SGK 2 · 0 0

infinity is not a number it is a value that goes on for ever meaning that infinity over infinity is indeterminable

2006-11-08 14:28:09 · answer #7 · answered by Rosie 2 · 0 0

Infinity is sort of like a referance, there is no real number for it, because it's the highest number possible, and because there is no highest number, technically, Its an infinitly long number :)

2006-11-08 14:33:54 · answer #8 · answered by ? 2 · 0 0

uh, becuase infinity is not really a number its like, a neverending list (well sort of)

2006-11-08 14:28:31 · answer #9 · answered by the princess of the world 3 · 0 0

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