2006-11-08 14:22:19 · 15 answers · asked by kam0361 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
wait...what makes u think that?
it IS one!!
2006-11-08 14:27:25 · answer #1 · answered by thugster17 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
You cannot assign a numeric value to infinity. It is infinite. Any other number (2, 5673, 45.67, x, etc.) you can assign a finite numeric value to. And when you divide those by itself, you will get one.
What is infinity? Can you assign it a numeric value? No. Therefore you can not divide two infinities (if that even exists, which it doesn't) and get a finite value such as 1.
To sudhaker-but infinity isn't a number. Can you say infinity equals something? Infinity could equal any number. But it doesn't equal any number because there are infinite numbers to which it equals. You cannot assign just one number to it. You can only assign infinity to infinity, which cannot be regarded as a number.
2006-11-08 22:27:48 · answer #2 · answered by Thardus 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Infinity is not a number. Infinity is a limit. When you use limits,
unexpected things can happen. It is possible for infinity^0 to be infinite.
It is possible for infinity^0 to be zero. It is not actually defined. A
simpler example appears with division.
What is infinity divided by infinity? Most people would say it equals one.
(infinity)x(infinity)=(infinity), so (infinity)=(infinity)/(infinity).
Depending on how you figure it out, you can get infinity divided by infinity to equal just about anything.
Guido
2006-11-08 22:44:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi kamal
r u know what is infinite, infinte is not limited.
if you think to assign any certain number to infinity then it means that infinity become a number and any number is divided by same gives one.
but as the question we never say that one infinity is equal to another, for instance as u never say that two persons with same name r of same nature/quality.
so due to limitlessness of infinity is the resion behind y infinity/infinity not gives 1.
Thanks
Sumit
2006-11-09 03:08:41 · answer #4 · answered by sumit s 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Infinity is undefined in math. Undefined, meaning --> there's no actual value for infinity.
So, infinity by infinity is effectively dividing two undefined values. When the values themselves are undefined, how can their quotient be defined?
2006-11-08 23:08:09 · answer #5 · answered by Flashy V 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because one infinity is never equal to another infinity. Each and every infinity is unique. Infinity is something undefined, and when something is undefined how can u equate two undefined things as equal.
2006-11-09 03:00:14 · answer #6 · answered by Napster 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it does not make sense because you can not give infinity a number. so infinity divided by infinity is not possible.
2006-11-09 23:58:53 · answer #7 · answered by kool5aban 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because infinity is not a number.
2006-11-10 20:07:20 · answer #8 · answered by frank 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Infinity is not a number. Its a concept.
2006-11-09 00:56:09 · answer #9 · answered by manoj Ransing 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anything divided by infinity is meaningless. So whether it is infinity or any other whole number.
2006-11-08 22:39:22 · answer #10 · answered by archana3k1 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
o divided by o ?
u can not tell the answer
similarly infinity / infinity can not be found
that is why, such forms are called indefinite forms
2006-11-09 01:08:23 · answer #11 · answered by dondon 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋