The original concept of affirmative action was simply to actively search out bright and promising young minorities, and help and encourage them to seek some higher education. But when the pols got through with it and added "quotas" as a measure of compliance, it did become very much a matter of reverse discrimination. The really sad part about it was that many young people were put into extremely competitive schools, way over their heads, became frustrated and dropped out. Better to get a 4 year diploma from "Middling U." than drop out of Harvard after 1 semester. So no, not only is it not fair as a matter of reverse discrimination, it has been self-defeating from the viewpoint of its original intent. Hope this helps!!
2006-11-08 09:54:10
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answer #1
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answered by Pete 4
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Well, technically yes. If there exists a bias toward a certain group, then it can work to counteract that bias. Which is a good thing. But if that original bias has gone away, then the need for affirmative action goes away. this is why most affirmative action has started to either go away or reduce it's effects.
But there is some affirmative action that will always exists. For example many places require Universities to accept a certain number of students who are considered low income. This is a type that will probably be around for a while because there will always be low income people trying to get into universities. And the point of this is to keep universities from only letting in people who's families have donated large amounts of money.
And to be fair to affermative action, it doesn't only apply to races and to jobs. Like the university example above, there are many affermative action laws that don't have anything to do with race or jobs.
2006-11-08 09:45:11
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answer #2
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answered by Take it from Toby 7
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some thing like that, sure... while issues have been in elementary terms voluntary, hirers have been reluctant to hire non-whites (no longer precisely by way of fact they have been raciasts, yet by way of fact they have been "delicate" hiriing in elementary terms white adult males). So between 1968-1991 the government made "Affirmative action" a call for, throughout the time of hwich time those self same hirers found out it made stable company sense to hire a sort of categories of people, ideal us to the present "selection" style... ("Affirmative action" hans't even been around for 20 years now.)
2016-12-14 03:54:30
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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It's unfair.
Why should a rich black kid be given more opportunity than a white kid that has worked his butt off in school, despite having a crackhead mother, an abusive father, and working 40 hours per week?
2006-11-08 09:44:02
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Of course its not fair….but then when is life ever been fair…or is life suppose to be fair? If life were fair we would all be knock-down beautiful/handsome have 3.5 million dollars in the bank and we would never have to break a sweat outside of a sauna and we would all live to be 101 years old.
2006-11-08 09:49:30
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answer #5
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answered by wzant1 2
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sure everybody who ISNT willing to put in the work or effort should have the same benifits the hard working americans have. Doesnt that make sense?
2006-11-08 09:45:47
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answer #6
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answered by CaptainObvious 7
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It is selecting someone less qualified based on their race.
Does that sound fair?
2006-11-08 09:42:49
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answer #7
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answered by kingstubborn 6
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If nothing else it's insulting to tell people they aren't 'good enough' or 'smart enough' to get jobs without the government's help.
2006-11-08 09:41:12
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answer #8
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answered by Chris J 6
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Are you asking if it is fair to have double standards for people based on their skin color or gender?
Gee, how could that NOT be fair?
2006-11-08 09:46:53
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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It is political racism. But against whites so it cool
2006-11-08 09:46:29
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answer #10
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answered by momojo 2
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