2006-11-08 02:56:47 · 5 answers · asked by patrick k 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Let's see. If the entity collecting the taxes is authorized by "law" to differentiate between full and part time residents, then yes, by golly, it's legal. Is there a law that says "hey you can't do that"? Probably not. If you think it isn't supported in statutes, or the constitution of the state you're in, you'll need to contact an attorney.
2006-11-08 03:01:59 · answer #1 · answered by Ice 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the municipality is taxing based on "Market Value Assessment" then a seasonal property will have a lower assessment than a permanent residence. That assumes that both properties are in the same municipality.
If not, then all mill rates aren't set the same. Different towns have different budgets and that's what dictates the mill rates.
So yes, it is legal.
2006-11-08 03:09:37 · answer #2 · answered by Jack 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. It is called a "homesteader's exemption". Here in Florida, if you can call your house your primary residence for at least 6 months out of the calender year, you are eligible for this exemption, which is currently $25,000 (we voted on an increase yesterday, but I don't know the outcome yet). If the house is NOT your primary residence for at least six months out of the calender year (as is the case with many of this state's "snowbirds"), then, you pay the full property tax amount. Is this legal? Duh - it is one of the fundamental laws of this state.
2006-11-08 03:07:24 · answer #3 · answered by happy heathen 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would think if that's the way the tax law is written then the answer is yes.
2006-11-08 02:59:31 · answer #4 · answered by madjer21755 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2006-11-08 02:58:19 · answer #5 · answered by rumbidzo and cena 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋