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Prove that 1(1!) + 2(2!) +.....+n(n!) = (n+1)! -1

2006-11-08 02:27:31 · 4 answers · asked by yanesh_r 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

True for n=1: 1(1!) = 2! - 1 = 1.

Induction: Given that sum(i=1 to n) i(i!) = (n+1)! - 1, we have

sum(i=1 to n+1) i(i!)
= sum(i=1 to n) i(i!) + (n+1)[(n+1)!]
= (n+1)! -1 + (n+1)[(n+1)!]
= (n+1)[(n+1)!] + (n+1)! - 1 (rearranging terms)
= (n+2)[(n+1)!] - 1
= (n+2)! - 1.

Since the statement is true for n=1 and it being true for n causes it to be true for n+1, it follows by induction that it is true for all n.

2006-11-08 02:35:27 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

First we note that this is trivially true when n=1. Assume that it is true for some n. Then [k=1, n+1]∑kk! = (n+1)(n+1)! + [k=1, n]∑kk! = (n+1)(n+1)! + (n+1)!-1 = (n+1+1)(n+1)! - 1 = (n+2)! - 1, so this formula also holds for n+1. Thus by induction, it holds for all n, and we are done.

2006-11-08 10:36:07 · answer #2 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

Show good for n=2 Ok

Assume true for n=k
1(1!)+2(2!) +...+k(k!) = (k+1)!-1

add both sides (k+1)(k+1)!

1(1!)+2(2!)+...(k+1)(k+1)! = (k+1)!-1+(k+1)(k+1)!
=(k+1)![1+(k+1)]-1
=[(k+1)+1]!-1
qed

2006-11-08 11:25:15 · answer #3 · answered by rwbblb46 4 · 0 0

Too abstract, can't do sorry. I reckon it's n+2=n

2006-11-08 10:30:33 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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