How can one separate the wrongness of pedophilia from the socially gay person? How does one explain a pedophile as not having "normal" gay thoughts when the normality of gay actions is also in question by society to this day?
2006-11-08 01:29:41 · 13 answers · asked by mulderlx 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Pedophiles are almost always self identified straight men, no matter who the victim happens to be.
It's about power and control. Not so much about sex.
2006-11-08 01:35:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
All labels we have for sexuality mean being sexually oriented towards a certain creature, that I'll call X. X can be many things. Depending on who you are, your desires for X will create a desire to describe the relationship between you and X.
If you are a man who loves men, then that relationship is described as gay.
If you are a man who loves young boys (but not girls), the relationship is described as pedophilia. At this point in time, we don't have special terms to differentiate boy children from girl children as objects of desire, but the mere term 'pedophilia' is a good enough differentiation from 'gay', in my mind. I don't say 'gay pedophile' or 'straight pedophile', since 'gay' and 'straight' are terms used for adults, not children.
But you're right, it's hard to show people that gays aren't pedophiles because of this.
2006-11-08 09:26:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Pedophiles are not generally attracted to adults of either gender; they're attracted to children, generally pre-adolescent. And children at that stage of development tend to have very little physical distinctions between the genders; a 6 year old boy in a dress looks a lot like a 6 year old girl.
As such, you can't really say that a pedophile is straight or gay, regardless of the sex of his/her victim.
As to how one "seperates the wrongness of pedophilia from the socially gay person," it's based on informed consent. A socially gay person engages in sexual activities with consenting adults; a pedophile engages in sexual activities with children, who are considered to not be emotionally and psychologically developed enough to give proper consent or deal with the ramifications yet.
2006-11-08 06:40:19 · answer #3 · answered by angiekaos 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
A normally gay person has sex with people his/her gender but is not a pedophile. A pedophile is a person who has sex with little children. Most gay people think pedophilia is a disgusting thing just as hetero's do.
2006-11-08 01:37:38 · answer #4 · answered by elaeblue 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
What do you call a male pedophile who rapes young girls? By that logic bi and heterosexuality are also key causes to pedophilia. It's funny but neither wiki nor dictionary.com seem to associate pedophilia with any one sexuality
2006-11-08 18:33:49 · answer #5 · answered by Rageling 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What others have reported is right. maximum baby abuse is committed by potential of the daddy and the 2d maximum criminal is the mother besides the certainty that if we are truthful her offense is extra one among silence than very own involvement. the subsequent maximum ordinary criminal, the older brother. accompanied by potential of depended on human beings like the activities coach, instructor, kinfolk buddy, college bus driving force etc. yet much extra of a ask your self is the main abused is women. (a million in 4) whilst a million in 8 boys would be abused. All of that paints the gay guy as low threat. in certainty the information says in appreciate to toddler sitting the older brother is the super threat as is the uncle. yet through fact the main abused is women that announces heterosexuals are the main ordinary criminal. All that reported, in case you get admission to the ratio of at as quickly as v gay human beings in society against the ration of offenders, its all proportional. there is no greater in threat group.
2016-12-10 05:03:36 · answer #6 · answered by killeen 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in criminal law the key is the age of the preferred "partner." victim. Pedophiles are unable or unwilling to interact with mature persons in a sexual way.
2006-11-08 01:32:52 · answer #7 · answered by David B 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Pediphiles are mostly straight identified men. Homosexuality is not any different than race as a reason to call a person into question.
2006-11-08 01:32:07 · answer #8 · answered by ♂ Randy W. ♂ 6 · 5⤊ 2⤋
The majority of male on male paedophiles are men who identify as heterosexual. Paedophilia is quite simply wrong, it is not a question of sexuality.
2006-11-08 01:33:21 · answer #9 · answered by chris_morganuk 3 · 4⤊ 2⤋
Gays have been around since the dawn of time. Look at the Roman legionaires and some ancient japanese and chinese military texts. As for the headline question, yes it does make them gay.
2006-11-08 01:33:27 · answer #10 · answered by driftinglust 2 · 3⤊ 4⤋