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2006-11-07 18:56:16 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

6 answers

Hello dear Lila!
Well, to be exact, Socrates did not disapproved Democracy, but the way at his time Democracy was practiced (and it was much more democratic than in our days)!
His main concern was that in the democratic practices of his days, many lesser -on specific issues- were working on important issues! Thus, he was proposing that the proper person to deal with the subject of his knowledge, talent, expertise!

2006-11-07 20:14:37 · answer #1 · answered by soubassakis 6 · 0 0

Lila, Socrates' critique of democracy is three-fold:

1. Democracy does not require that participants demonstrate any special talent or ability to govern. The great skill they need is not reason, but rhetoric. And Socrates had no more use for rhetoric than democracy.

2. Beyond those who participated, Democracy surrendered administrative powers to individuals who had not demonstated a capacity to lead (as measured by experience, education or training). Thus, the welfare of the republic was always in jeopardy.

3. In arguments, Democracy treated all arguments as equally valid -- and adopted arguments that were based on popularity rather than correctness. Socrates was not value-neutral. He believed there was a right answer and a wrong answer. And if the wrong answer was popular, for Socrates, it was still the wrong answer. Democracy makes no such fine distinctions, and Socrates hated it for that reason

2006-11-08 07:18:36 · answer #2 · answered by Jack 7 · 1 0

he disapproved of democracy because originally democracy meant rule of the minority elite over the masses. That is the trick of the concept, it actually means people rule, but people is more than one person so technically two people ruling every one is democracy. In Socrates day only 10% or less of society had the right to vote and they were the nobility. The concept has only been in vogue in the last 2-3 hundred years and is still an imperfect system.

2006-11-08 06:51:12 · answer #3 · answered by Convince Pete 3 · 0 0

Because "Good" men like Socrates get killed for speaking the truth in the assembly, the politician and voter needs no special knowledge to have an interest in 'the greater good'-- all of which adds up to corruption, mob rule, tyranny of the majority, and eventual collapse.

2006-11-08 07:06:43 · answer #4 · answered by -.- 4 · 0 0

in a simple word his will to a perfect government and his belief on better accountability of one individual than group.

because of his extreme idealistic beliefs regarding the ideal perfect republic.
he believed that "one" wise man should be in charge and since in a demo crate government there are many people contributing to decision making (which they are not necessarily wise or even united), he looked at the democracy as a barrier from "perfect".

it is also arguable that he was witnessing the "wrong" decisions made by demo crate Greek government (probably because of different opposite opinions) and at the same time imagining a wise man (probably himself) as the one who is able to make the "right" decisions. therefore this was leading to development of his political beliefs: disapproving democracy.

2006-11-08 04:21:19 · answer #5 · answered by Maziar 2 · 0 0

Democracy is flawed on two counts; firstly the majority of any population is on average the less educated so majority rule is not the best. Secondly the election of leaders is a popularity contest and not a selection of the most qualified.

2014-05-21 18:34:25 · answer #6 · answered by Cephas 1 · 0 0

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