English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

this is a question related to math.

2006-11-07 11:36:31 · 3 answers · asked by Dechristian G 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

There are an infinite quantity of rational numbers between -1 and 1.

For example all of these are rational numbers in this range:
-1, -7/8 -3/4, -5/8, -1/2, -3/8, -1/4, -1/8, 0, 1/8, 1/4, 3/8, 1/2, 5/8, 3/4, 7/8, 1

Basically anything in the form a/b where a and b are integers, and the ratio of a/b is between -1 to 1 will satisfy the equation.

Given integers a and b, where 1 < a < b -- any of these will be valid rational numbers in the range -1 to 1:

a/b, 0, -a/b

2006-11-07 11:39:27 · answer #1 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 1 0

a rational number between -1 and 1 will be of the form a/b (where a and b are integers) and -1 < a/b < 1.

these are also called (proper) fractions.

also, Pi/3 is not one of these. neither is Pi/4, Pi/5, Pi/6, ...

hope this helps...

2006-11-07 20:04:42 · answer #2 · answered by mr green 4 · 0 0

0 - zero

2006-11-07 19:38:55 · answer #3 · answered by Shalom 3 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers