20 kg=200N
mass of the block under water=200-150
=50 N
time=1/5th of a second
2006-11-07 08:50:19
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Use the equation F=ma where F is force, m is mass and a is acceleration. Then you can find out how long it'll take to travel 1m easily enough, right?
To find the acceleration, divide the mass (20kg) by the force.
You can find the force by taking the using the mass and the distance (i think!) and then take away 150N from it to get the amount of force downward.
Sorry I can't tell you for sure how to get the Force, but I hope I've been able to be some help!
2006-11-07 08:54:46
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answer #2
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answered by sleepyface 2
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okay, remember that a Newton (N) is a kg-m/s^2
and F=ma or a=F/m
so the force on the bouyancy force on the rock will provide this acceleration:
a=(150 kg-m/s^2)/(20 kg)=7.5 m/s^2
this acceleration is in the opposite direction of gravity so the total acceleration
a=a(gravity)+a(bouyancy)=-9.8+7.5= -2.3 m/s^2
the next equation we need is:
d=1/2 at^2 or 2d/a=t^2 or t=sqrt(2d/a)
t=sqrt(2*-1m/-2.3m/s^2)
t=sqrt(.87 s^2)
t=.93 sec
you should check my math and my formulas but perhaps this will give you the idea
in a real situation there wouldn't be a constant bouyancy friction force because the friction gets bigger as the rock falls faster but it seems like this problem was ignoring that minor effect
2006-11-07 09:02:24
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answer #3
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answered by enginerd 6
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easy indeed ;-)
net force on rock is its weight, less the buoyancy
so here, using 9.81 for g, you get a net force of
-20*9.81+150=-46.2, i.e. 46.2N, downwards
if you divide that force by the mass of the rock, you'll get the acceleration:
a=-46.2/20=-2.31m/s2
i.e. 2.31m/s2, downwards
now one of the equations for uniformly accelerated movement tells you that
x = (1/2)*a*t^2
which you can rearrange as:
t = sqrt(2*x/a)
using the a we just found, and x=1m, we get
t=sqrt(2*1/2.31)=0.93 seconds
whereas, out of the water, the rock would have needed just 0.45 seconds to fall 1m.
if you had used g=10 instead, you'd have found t=0.89 seconds.
hope this helps
2006-11-07 08:48:17
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answer #4
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answered by AntoineBachmann 5
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i'm assuming it particularly is accelerating at a relentless fee and that relativity could properly be ignore approximately. i'm uncertain if those are lifelike assumptions. the customary speed is 25500 m/s + (one million/2) * 5.fifty seven * 10^6 m/s = 2.eighty one * 10^6 m/s d/v = t 0.15m/2.eighty one *10^6 m/s = 5.3 *10^-8 s
2016-10-03 09:40:17
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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u made my calcalator blow up lol
2006-11-07 08:44:36
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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0.2s
2006-11-07 08:49:04
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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easy?!?!??!?
2006-11-07 08:42:03
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answer #8
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answered by ellenrose219 3
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