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solution should use the definition of the inverse

2006-11-07 08:37:47 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

If the sum of the columns of matricx A is zero then (c3) = -(c1) + (c2).
ie it is a formulation of dependent vectors
So it is not a one to one transformation and so it does not have a unique inverse!!

ie A^-1 does not exist.

2006-11-07 09:32:53 · answer #1 · answered by Wal C 6 · 0 0

If A is the matrix and it was invertible, let B be its inverse then AB=BA=I (the identity matrix), so for any x: BAx= x. you can choose x = (1,1,1) so that Ax=0, and BAx=0, but x is not 0.

2006-11-07 16:54:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Try the matrix on the vector (1,1,1) You'll get zero.

2006-11-07 16:43:29 · answer #3 · answered by modulo_function 7 · 0 0

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