I was watching something about the elections. An they said say if the House was 48 Dems. 2 Indep. An 50 Repub. i heard the Indep. vote for the Dems. Is that true? I thought they were independent. So they would vote; 48/2/50. Thanks for the input.
2006-11-07 07:25:46 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
They would side with the Dems on some things and the Reps on others.
2006-11-07 07:28:12 · answer #1 · answered by E 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You need to look at the voting record of the particular independents. Congressman Bernie Sanders of Vermont is an independent but votes with the majority of democrats about 98% of the time. He is the only independent currently in the House of Representative.
2006-11-07 15:41:28 · answer #2 · answered by FabMom 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First of all, its the Senate, not the House. Lieberman is going to be elected as an Independant, and along with Jeffers, there will be two Independants, both of whom will probably vote with the Democrats regardless of how many there will be. You can only vote Yah of Nah. Both parties will try to woo them. Jeffer used to be a Repup and, of course, Leiberman, was, and really still is a Democrat.
2006-11-07 15:34:30 · answer #3 · answered by Fred C. Dobbs 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jeffords I-VT has & I assume will continue to caucos with the Dems. Assuming that Lieberman wins (unless the polls are for a different planet he will) most seem to think he will also caucus with the Dems. I disagree, I think he will caucus with the Reps.
2006-11-07 15:35:21 · answer #4 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yea what E said
2006-11-07 15:31:13 · answer #5 · answered by Luis 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋