Is
- 3 W^2 Y^3 the same as -1/ W^2 Y^3 ?
I think it is - I just want someone to tell me Yes, you're right, it is.
Many thanks.
2006-11-06 21:17:54 · 7 answers · asked by paulmurphy42 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
no
they are not the same
2006-11-06 21:22:13 · answer #1 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are not the same
the ratio of the two expressions is
(-3 W^2 Y^3)/-1 ( W^2 Y^3) = 3 W^4 Y^6
2006-11-06 21:37:03 · answer #2 · answered by maussy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you trying to say
-3(w^2y^3)=-1/(w^2y^3)
or
-3w^2y^3=(-1/w^2)y^3
or some other combination? Some clarification might help
2006-11-06 21:25:24 · answer #3 · answered by Crystal 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No man, you're wrong:
-3(W^2)(Y^3)=-3(1/W^-2)(1/Y^-3)
Not the one you found!
2006-11-06 21:34:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
you see:
-3W^2Y^3 = (-3)W^Y^3
-1/W^2Y^3 = -1 over W^2Y^3 (fraction)
-1/W^2Y^3 does not equals to (-3)W^Y^3
in fact, (-3)W^Y^3 is more than -1/W^2Y^3
2006-11-06 23:55:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, not the same
2006-11-06 21:34:32 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Who is that supposed to be simple for? Einstein? Sorry no idea!
2006-11-06 21:25:30 · answer #7 · answered by Karen D 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋