2006-11-06 19:57:48 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
well i think so.women have been fighting for equality so the penalty shoud be the same.but what da heck women can come rape me.i dont care.
2006-11-06 20:00:27 · answer #1 · answered by krishna s 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yes. The word rape doesn't discriminate against sex. It is a violation of one's personal space and has sexual intentions forced on someone through physcial, mental, and environmental ways (environmental meaning it can happen anywhere anytime)
Although it is usually associated with males forcing themselves onto females it does occassionally have the roles reversed. It is quite possible for a woman to rape a male. She could be stronger then her victim, have a weapon, be in a group or it could be forced upon through blackmail. Also consider the "date rape" scenerio where a guy might've had too much to drink and a woman takes advantage of this. It happens.
Alot of women also use pyschological warfare on men since most men will not strike a woman and therefore are helpless if she persues. Regardless if the male is turned on by this act it is still deemed rape even if he achieves an orgasm. In many cases most men would probably never even admit to being rape because of the effect it could have on them.
In this day in age if you were to hear that a guy was raped by a girl what would you think? Alot of people would think he was lying. The male could very easily be emasculated in a situation like this resulting in social disaster among friends and family. The same stereotyped ailments that happen to when a female is raped happens to males as well. I hope this helps you out.
2006-11-06 20:15:44 · answer #2 · answered by pheirmeizer001 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, yes. If the female uses force or threat of violence and the male does not willingly consent, that is rape. There is another, which is called statutory rape, wherein laws say that one of the copulating couple is under some legal age limit and the other is not. Usually, there are two lines drawn with adults (commonly 18 and variously up to 21, the old common line) and those under that line, and for those under the age of consent, there are older teenagers and those under some line like 13 or 14. The law often somehow assumes today that people over 21 can copulate with each other--willingly--all they want, and teenagers, essentially high school age or very early college, can copulate with each other all they want, and those under some protective line like 14 aren't supposed to do it at all. If you do it past one of those lines set by statute, law, then you have committed rape whether the other party agreed or not. Gender is often not much of an issue--although, from what I've seen, a guy who is guilty of statutory rape (like a school teacher) will often get between 10 and 15 years in prison and a woman who is guilty of statutory rape (and I do know one) will get maybe 5 (she had 5 years of probation).
2006-11-07 04:02:29 · answer #3 · answered by Rabbit 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES! Look at the female teachers being convicted of sex with male students all over the news. Statutory rape I believe.
2006-11-07 02:40:36 · answer #4 · answered by arcabear69 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In some states there are laws against any criminal profiting from his crime. So the law may not allow it to be published. However, that doesn't answer your question about whether or not its publication should be allowed. First, a publisher would have to be found for it. I doubt any reputable publisher would touch it. If it is published, then depending on what is in it, it might come up against the laws governing pornography. I would hope it would not be published because of the horrendous nature of the crimes.
2016-05-22 06:44:04 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Check out the case of Mary Kay Letournou.
2006-11-06 20:03:25 · answer #6 · answered by Come on in, the water's lovely 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. A man can involuntarily sustain an erection if stimulated. Even if a guy is not 'aroused' sexually, blood flow to penis can occur, an erection happens and a woman can jump on the penis and ride it. It's rape!
2006-11-06 20:00:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Forced sex is rape, regardless of the gender of the assaulter and the victim.
2006-11-07 15:51:25 · answer #8 · answered by Rageling 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
heck! I was raped when I was 13, did I complained? no, I went back looking for her.
But, regardless, the answer to your question is yes.
2006-11-06 20:13:58 · answer #9 · answered by cibercitizen 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
NO. The definition of rape in most countries includes "vaginal penetration". Since a man does not have one, he cannot be raped.
Most countries EXCLUDES forcible sodomy from the definition of rapoe. SO ONLY WOMAN can be raped.
2006-11-06 20:36:34 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋