2006-11-06 19:14:07 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
I think men being submissive to women is gay.
2006-11-06 19:19:36 · answer #1 · answered by HandsOnCelibacy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is about definition. People in the west (in particular) use the term 'gay' to embrace a whole range of feelings, emotions and attractions.
People are often too ignorant to look beyond restrictive definitions because it would leave them outside their 'comfort zone' For example, as many have already said in their answers, gay means sexual attraction to someone of the same sex. Yet the term ' Gay 'has all these extra connotations and assumptions surrounding the definition that few could actually say they meet in full.
My opinion is more of a rational one and that is: We all have friendships, which are all based on attraction of one sort of another, what we do with these attractions are totally up to us as individuals. If that means our sexuality ceases to have a concrete definition, then so be it. It doesn't matter where you come from in the world, that is a truth. The sooner people can come to terms with this and deal with it in a rational and caring way. Then the sooner we can start living as more harmonious peoples.
2006-11-07 03:27:46 · answer #2 · answered by waggy 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I'm sorry how do you DESIRE someone of the same sex without being gay?
I would think the west is far more open than the east.
2006-11-07 03:16:44 · answer #3 · answered by lula gula 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You mean you can be a man AND desire a man in the east, and you are not considered homosexual??? How can this be? Hey, if you are gay you are gay. Accept yourself. It's okay, your parents will get used to the idea, and the rest of us will love and accept you too. Good luck with that.
2006-11-07 03:20:48 · answer #4 · answered by Barbara W 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Can East meet west.
2006-11-07 03:19:20 · answer #5 · answered by SKG R 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For someone to desire another person of the same sex is called what in the Eastern cultures? And being "gay" doesn't even have to enter the equation...desire is desire no matter the culture.
2006-11-07 03:17:10 · answer #6 · answered by Kent 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Men do desire other men in the West without being "gay" - surely that's why they invented sports!!
2006-11-07 03:18:12 · answer #7 · answered by paul h 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
because the western definition of "gay" or homosexual is haviing sexual desire for a person of the same sex. In the East they have a different view of things, from what I understand about the Eastern situation is that women are for reproduction and men are for pleasure...in the Western view it is still the same...they are concidered homosexual. Its just a difference in cultures.
2006-11-07 03:30:03 · answer #8 · answered by Roman Esteban Due April 12 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Uhh..im from India and I dont know where you got that idea. In the east society is a lot stricter and homosexuality , anal sex and oral sex is illegal. Yes you can get arrested if someoen lodges a complaint against you. No one bothers with the celebreties who say they're gay though.
2006-11-07 03:19:17 · answer #9 · answered by keg 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
because no matter where you are, If you have sexual desire for someone of the samesex, you are Gay. However, in the west you are less likely to bekilled for it
2006-11-07 03:16:33 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋