why p+2p^2-1=0 is = to (2p-1) (p+1)?

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2006-11-06 16:06:54 · 4 answers · asked by Nathaly S 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

2p^2+2p-p-1
=2p(p+1)-1(p+1)
=(p+1)(2p-1)
that is why!!!!!

2006-11-06 16:10:43 · answer #1 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋

it is factored

rewrite it as:
2p^2+p-1
then you factor it and it becomes
(2p-1)(p+1)
to get the original equation again you use foil

2006-11-06 16:12:06 · answer #2 · answered by aznfobboytly 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋

Multiply it out to verify it.

2006-11-06 16:10:33 · answer #3 · answered by modulo_function 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋

yes

2006-11-06 16:10:00 · answer #4 · answered by DenRoCK 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋