There's a couple, who have been together for some months and have an “intimate” relationship. They’re hanging out, having a good time and they get drunk together. One of them passes out (from the drinking) and the other proceeds to have sex with the passed out partner. Is it considered rape?
2006-11-06 11:57:16 · 29 answers · asked by MONKI 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Yes...plain and simple.
2006-11-06 12:02:14 · answer #1 · answered by cheetah7 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't see where it would be rape. They have already been together for a while in a intimate relationship. Sounds like she has already been having sex with him drunk or sober so whats the difference. Me personally i wouldn't sleep with a drunk woman. But on the other hand if a woman puts herself in the situation where she is getting drunk with some man that is just as drunk as she is isn't she asking for trouble?
2006-11-06 20:05:28 · answer #2 · answered by Sarcastic Sid 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Ya THINK??? Everyone involved must be a consenting adult. If you're passed out, not conscience, you are unable to consent...if you can't consent and someone has sex with you, then it's rape. Doesn't matter if you're a "couple" or not. Rapes occur in marriage so the couple argument really isn't valid.
2006-11-06 20:03:12 · answer #3 · answered by N0_white_flag 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes! Anytime there is sex without permission, it is rape. This would be rape if it were a girl you met a day ago, as well as, a woman you have been married to for 30 years.
2006-11-06 20:03:06 · answer #4 · answered by Bill 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
not giving consent is rape, however, i would think this couple would need to decide if she feels violated or offended by what happened and if she was truly passed out
i don't believe this is a simple yes or no answer this is that line where someone wants to scream rape when actually did either party really comprehend what took place if they already have sexual relations -- ??
2006-11-06 20:19:56 · answer #5 · answered by Lisa 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it sure is, the persons that is passed out was not of sound mind, to give consent, no matter how long they have been with each other, or how many times they have had sex. in the eyes of the law it is rape.
2006-11-06 20:07:26 · answer #6 · answered by here to help 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes that is rape, unless it is consensual (and how can it be if one was "passed out") then it is rape. No matter if they knew one another or not, if parties don't agree to the act then it justifies rape in my opinion
2006-11-06 20:38:19 · answer #7 · answered by heartbroken 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes jsut because they are in a commited realtionship doesnt give them the right to have sex with them when they are passed out... and realy what kinda pleassure does one get from a passed out motionless body----think of it this way----what if for some reason that person had alchol poisening and never woke up they would have been havign sex with a dead person----not pretty.
2006-11-06 22:26:11 · answer #8 · answered by littlet 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is considered rape. However, it also depends on how the victim feels about what the other has done. I personally wouldn't care if my husband did that. If the victim feels victim then it is most certainly rape.
2006-11-06 20:29:23 · answer #9 · answered by Violet 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Only if she said it is not being able to consent to the act makes her feel violated. You not getting permission is a invasion in the worst way , You don't know when she is due or if she has some female issue, that she had not spoken to you about YES!!!!! If SHE SAY IT IS
2006-11-06 20:08:59 · answer #10 · answered by Rhonda S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes because they other person has not consented to it. You have to have consent in order for it not to be considered rape even if you've had sex with the other person before.
2006-11-06 20:00:27 · answer #11 · answered by Mark and Allie 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋