2006-11-05 22:56:32 · 6 answers · asked by shila 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Take the factorial of each zero. Add those results and then take the factorial of that result
(0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)! =(1+1+1+1+1)!=5!=120
2006-11-05 23:04:37 · answer #1 · answered by ioniceclipse 2 · 5⤊ 2⤋
Operation is factorial of summation of 0! five times.
(0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)!
0!=1.
Therefore the above expression can be written as ,
(1+1+1+1+1)!
=5!
=5*4*3*2*1
=120.
(The special case 0! is defined to have value 0!=1, consistent with the combinatorial interpretation of there being exactly one way to arrange zero objects (i.e., there is a single permutation of zero elements, namely the empty set phi).)
2006-11-06 01:20:09 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
0! (nought factorial) = 1
So 0! + 0! + 0! + 0! +0! = 5
Then 5! = 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 120
2006-11-05 23:39:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is asumed that factorial of zero is 1
so, with 5 zeros you can get 5 ones
0!=1
0!=1
0!=1
0!=1
0!=1
Now 11^(1+1)=121 (4 ones used)
121-1=120 (1 one used)
Thus you can get 120 using 5 zeros.
2006-11-06 01:23:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
(0! + 0! + 0! + 0! + 0!) ! =
5! = 5*4*3*2*1 = 120
We also can raise it to base (e)
e ^ x is the inverse operation of ln x
(eº + eº + eº + eº +eº)! = (1+1+1+1+1)!
= 5! = 120
Source(s):
0! = 1
eº = e^0 = 1
2006-11-05 23:40:00 · answer #5 · answered by M. Abuhelwa 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋
What in the world? See this is why I hated math. Im sorry, I have no clue. But I did try and figure it out.
2006-11-05 23:05:29 · answer #6 · answered by IamMuslimah 3 · 0⤊ 4⤋