2006-11-05 22:54:30 · 6 answers · asked by shila 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Take the factorial of each zero. Add those results and then take the factorial of that result
(0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)! =(1+1+1+1+1)!=5!=120
2006-11-05 23:01:03 · answer #1 · answered by ioniceclipse 2 · 3⤊ 1⤋
We use the definition
0!=1 to solve this problem
[0!+0!+0!+0!+0!]!=[1+1+1+1+1]!
=5!=1+2+3+4+5=120
2006-11-06 00:59:09 · answer #2 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Operation is factorial of summation of 0! five times.
(0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)!
0!=1.
Therefore the above expression can be written as ,
(1+1+1+1+1)!
=5!
=5*4*3*2*1
=120.
(The special case 0! is defined to have value 0!=1, consistent with the combinatorial interpretation of there being exactly one way to arrange zero objects (i.e., there is a single permutation of zero elements, namely the empty set phi).)
2006-11-06 01:17:26 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
(0! + 0! + 0! + 0! + 0!) ! =
5! = 5*4*3*2*1 = 120
We also can raise it to base (e)
e ^ x is the inverse operation of ln x
(eº + eº + eº + eº +eº)! = (1+1+1+1+1)!
= 5! = 120
2006-11-05 23:19:42 · answer #4 · answered by M. Abuhelwa 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0 0 0 0 0
(0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)!
as 0! = 1,
therefore the above expression becomes ,
(1+1+1+1+1)!
which is 5!
which is 120!!
2006-11-05 23:07:43 · answer #5 · answered by swankynix 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Operation is factorial of summation of 0! 5 cases. (0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)! 0!=a million. for this reason the above expression could be written as , (a million+a million+a million+a million+a million)! =5! =5*4*3*2*a million =one hundred twenty. (The specific case 0! is defined to have fee 0!=a million, consistent with the combinatorial interpretation of there being precisely one thank you to rearrange 0 gadgets (i.e., there's a single permutation of 0 factors, quite the empty set phi).)
2016-12-28 14:15:59 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋