Considering that de Broglie's wavelength is based on Planck's constant and momentum, is there a theoretical wavelength for objects with greater mass than that of atomic particles if they moved at extremely slow speeds? Also, would no speed imply an infinitely large wavelength?
This isn't a question anywhere; I was just wondering while looking at the equation. I'm curious what other people have to say on this idea.
2006-11-05 14:43:14 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Considering that de Broglie's wavelength is based on Planck's constant and momentum, is there a theoretical wavelength for objects with greater mass than that of atomic particles if they moved at extremely slow speeds? Also, would no speed imply an infinitely large wavelength?
This isn't a question anywhere; I was just wondering while looking at the equation. I'm curious what other people have to say on this idea.
Yes, I do realize that based on lambda = h/(mv) there would be a wavelength, however, my question is more along the lines of is it possible to get a measurable wavelength (as in hundreds of nanometers) by reducing speed to almost zero. Plus, what would this wavelength look like on a macroscopic scale?
2006-11-05 17:57:08 · update #1
Hi. I think it deals more with the interaction of radiation with particles (or a particle) than with speed. At any non-relativistic speed (less than .1 'c' say) the wavelength would not be infinite or unbounded. Just my opinion.
2006-11-05 14:51:44 · answer #1 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES THERE IS A WAVELENGTH FOR OBJECTS OF GREATER MASS THAN PARTICLES.
no speed would not imply an infinitely large wavelength, let me tell you why: we have
h/mv= wavelenght
if you look at the equation you cannot have velocity = 0 m/s for it would make no sense at all since you cannot divide by zero.. right..?
2006-11-05 15:13:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋