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2006-11-05 04:00:08 · 8 answers · asked by kanshu 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

8 answers

Sorry tried a lot, searched a lot & surfed a lot but found no solution, I think Pascal is right.

P.s- Saket it is ∫e^sinx dx & not ∫(e^x)*sin x dx, if it was that, it would have been trivial.

2006-11-06 02:06:35 · answer #1 · answered by s0u1 reaver 5 · 0 0

I don't have access to a pen and paper, but intuitively, you should be able to solve it by expanding exp.(sinx) using the e^x series, substituting sin x for x.

You will have an infinite series, for the the general term is (sin x)^n / n! . Integrate the general term and then sum the general term from 0 to infinity. Voila!

2006-11-05 04:25:24 · answer #2 · answered by vivek 1 · 1 0

Can only be done numerically. That function has no elementary antiderivative.

Edit: and what's with the idiots who don't know the difference between an integral and a derivative?

2006-11-05 05:16:13 · answer #3 · answered by Pascal 7 · 3 0

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2016-11-27 20:14:57 · answer #4 · answered by alire 4 · 0 0

Sorry, pal this little @#$ can't be solved without numerical values.

2006-11-06 20:36:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

the given integration is e^sinx.dx
we use integrating by parts
I=sinxe^-integ of cosxe^dx
=sinxe^-(cosxe^-integ of cosxe^dx)
=sinxe^-(cosxe^)-I
2I=sinxe^-cosxe^
I=sinxe^-cosxe^/2.

2006-11-06 15:33:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

cos x+ C

2006-11-05 05:07:15 · answer #7 · answered by another_angel 2 · 0 3

u = sin x du/dx = cos x
derivative of "" e^u ""= e^u * du/dx --where u is any expression--

therefore the answer is (e^sinx) * cos x

2006-11-05 04:02:57 · answer #8 · answered by Triathlete88 4 · 1 3

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