Given 5 children there are 2^5 or 32 possible combinations of girls and boys. Since there is only one combination with all boys that leaves 31 combinations containing at least 1 girl. Therefore the probability is 31/32.
2006-11-04 12:30:25
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answer #1
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answered by prentisr 1
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The couple may plan to have 5 children, but they may be able to have 0, 1, or 2 but not 3, 4, or 5.. Therefore the probability cannot be computed unless we are given data that let's us also compute the probability of the couple having 5 children.
2006-11-04 12:38:20
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answer #2
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answered by ironduke8159 7
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This is a binomial distribution with the probability on any given birth of 1/2 it being a girl, with n=5 trials
Let x be then number of girls born
P(x>=1) = 1 - P(x=0)
P(x=o) = (5 chose 0)*(1/2)^0*(1/2)^5 = 1/32
P(x>=1) = 31/32
2006-11-04 12:32:33
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Assuming an equal chance of a girl or a boy, then the probability of having no girls in 5 children is:
(1/2)^5 = 1/32 = 0.03125, or just over 3%.
Therefore the probability of having at least one girl = 1-0.03125 =
0.96875. Almost a 97% probability.
2006-11-04 12:37:27
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answer #4
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answered by Jimbo 5
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Give the points to any of those first three whose answer you like. One further comment:
Any prob qu involving "at least one" is most easily solved by finding the probability of none -- as in this case solvers found the prob of all boys, which means no girls -- and then subtract from 1.
2006-11-04 12:38:06
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answer #5
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answered by Hy 7
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