2006-11-04 06:38:10 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
It's never been proven that he has.
2006-11-04 06:40:28 · answer #1 · answered by IndyT- For Da Ben Dan 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because he's a pervert. How he got that way is another story. Latoya Jackson wrote a book that said that their father sexually molested the girls in the family. Maybe Michael was molested by him too. 1 in 8 people who are molested pass the abuse along according to statistics.
2006-11-04 14:49:02 · answer #2 · answered by georgeewert 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it is indeed true (remember, he was never convicted), then probably because of psychological problems that stem from his childhood- an abusive father, and was exacerbated by growing up in the spotlight. I don't know exactly how this works; I'm no psychologist. But I imagine he is both desiring to live a childhood he missed out on (hence the Neverland stuff), and eroticizing the innocence of young boys he wishes he were.
Again, though, he has been deemed "innocent" and I'm just posturing.
2006-11-04 16:59:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Heterosexual men are more likely to be violators than homosexual men.
It hasn't been proven that he has molested them. But if so, it's because he can get away with it, and the parents like to pimp out their kids if it means a heafty settlement and an early retirement for themselves.
2006-11-04 15:01:09 · answer #4 · answered by happy g 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I don't know...he had such talent...and he was a good looking man..and then all the plastic surgery to make himself look like a white woman....what a disappointment to his fans..he really could have gone places with his artistic ability...but he certainly blew that away....I guess he's mentally disturbed with money...sounds like a dangerous combination to me.....But why did other parents let their children hang around and sleep over with Michael??
and tdk...neither was OJ
2006-11-04 14:44:06 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Maybe he was molosted when he was a little boy and he's just repeating what was done to him. It wasn't proven that he molested them either. I'm not saying he didn't but you never know.
2006-11-04 14:44:41 · answer #6 · answered by Reese 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
There has not been proof in a court of law that he has done so.
In this nation, our practice of law is that the party is "innocent until proven guilty".
He may be a maladjusted human being, but that doesn't mean he is gulity of the crime you mention.
2006-11-04 14:42:37 · answer #7 · answered by LL 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
i not a Micheal jackson fan or anything but wasnt he was found innocent
2006-11-04 14:41:50 · answer #8 · answered by Milo 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Let see, it has never been proved that he has, I have my own opinion about the guy. But if you want to know what he is about why not go to Dubai and ask him?
2006-11-04 15:04:01 · answer #9 · answered by Black Dragon 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because he paid the judge more than 30 billion dollars to let him go, and he may not pay justice on earth, but in heaven, he will pay
2006-11-04 15:02:12 · answer #10 · answered by H03S K33P MY NAM3 0F Y0 M0UTH 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That was the court saying that and a woman who he befriended. You have your facts wrong.
2006-11-04 15:58:48 · answer #11 · answered by Thomas S 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋