2006-11-03 19:29:33 · 4 answers · asked by b. 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Personal Finance
yes unless u work for a jew
2006-11-03 22:03:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope, at least my ex-boss never did. If our payday fell on a day that our business was closed, we got paid on the following day when we came back to work. Also, if our payday fell on a day that was a holiday for the banks, we didn't get paid prior to the holiday. And, if we took a week's vacation, and a payday fell within that week, we didn't get our paycheck before we went on vacation - we had to wait until we came back from vacation to get our paycheck. Our paydays were the 5th and the 20th of each month. Our boss used the excuse that our paychecks were dated for those 2 dates, and thus could not be given to us prior to the 5th or the 20th, as the banks would not cash/deposit them prior to the date on the paycheck.
2006-11-06 01:54:12 · answer #2 · answered by BRIAN W 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it really depend on your company. i had both prior and after. i think its an agreement between bank and the company. your employment contract only says you get pay every month. it doesn't really stipulate when...
2006-11-04 04:38:18 · answer #3 · answered by Vincent C 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES THEY SHOULD BUT ALL PEOPLE AREN'T NICE PEOPLE.
2006-11-04 03:36:54 · answer #4 · answered by cork 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋