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I read a few years ago that they produced their product in thrid world countries and paid the laboirers slave wages. is this still true?

2006-11-03 16:05:26 · 3 answers · asked by guitar_lady81 4 in Social Science Economics

3 answers

I don't think GAP ever has or still does use "slave labor" to make their clothing.
but they probably pay their workers in developing countries just enough money to afford food....which is just as bad.

2006-11-03 16:10:14 · answer #1 · answered by DBWH 2 · 0 0

* Slaves don't get paid, so the term "slave wages" is a bit of an oxymoron.

* Yes, people in poorer countries get paid less, but in those countries manufacturing is a comparatively well paid industry to work in compared with other sectors. The cost of living is also cheaper.

* It is not just 'Gap' but most clothing companies that outsource manufacturing. The West has been importing clothes from poorer countries for over 100 years.

2006-11-04 07:25:18 · answer #2 · answered by Mardy 4 · 0 0

It depends on what you consider "slave labor".Almost all our clothes are made in India,Africa,Colombia.These are very poor countries and the men and women get paid pennies a day.

2006-11-04 09:42:11 · answer #3 · answered by Celebrity girl 7 · 0 0

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