Not without a fallacious proof like the one above. (Notice how the "proof" includes a division by (a-b) which is a division by zero. This is not allowed and leads to the seeming contradiction that 0 = 1.
Zero does *not* equal One.
You could use similar fallacious methods:
1^0 = 1
1^1 = 1
Take the log base 1 of both sides:
0 = log 1 (1)
1 = log 1 (1)
Therefore 0 = 1.
2006-11-03 06:21:51
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answer #1
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answered by Puzzling 7
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-2 = -2
1-3 = 4-6
1-3+(9/4) = 4-6+(9/4)
(1 - (3/2))^2 = (2 - (3/2))^2
1 - (3/2) = 2 - (3/2)
1 = 2
0 = 1
This is one ive seen a lot, but it has an error in it. Zero can not be proven to be equal to 1.
2006-11-03 06:28:48
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answer #2
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answered by Nobody 3
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no i cant think of any way 0 will never be equal to 1
2006-11-03 07:11:40
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answer #3
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answered by sofy 1
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In Ring theory it can.
A ring has an additive identity (0) and a multiplicative identity (1). For the so-called zero ring which constists of just the single element 0 they are the same. It is it's own additive identity and multiplicative identity.
2006-11-03 06:25:08
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answer #4
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answered by modulo_function 7
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yes
a=1,b=1
a^2=a^2
a*b=b^2
a^2-a*b=a^2-b^2
a(a-b)=(a+b)(a-b)
a=a+b
0=b
0=1
2006-11-03 06:01:34
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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