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2006-11-03 05:52:19 · 5 answers · asked by asylum31 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

Not without a fallacious proof like the one above. (Notice how the "proof" includes a division by (a-b) which is a division by zero. This is not allowed and leads to the seeming contradiction that 0 = 1.

Zero does *not* equal One.

You could use similar fallacious methods:

1^0 = 1
1^1 = 1

Take the log base 1 of both sides:
0 = log 1 (1)
1 = log 1 (1)

Therefore 0 = 1.

2006-11-03 06:21:51 · answer #1 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 0 0

-2 = -2

1-3 = 4-6

1-3+(9/4) = 4-6+(9/4)

(1 - (3/2))^2 = (2 - (3/2))^2

1 - (3/2) = 2 - (3/2)

1 = 2

0 = 1

This is one ive seen a lot, but it has an error in it. Zero can not be proven to be equal to 1.

2006-11-03 06:28:48 · answer #2 · answered by Nobody 3 · 0 0

no i cant think of any way 0 will never be equal to 1

2006-11-03 07:11:40 · answer #3 · answered by sofy 1 · 0 0

In Ring theory it can.

A ring has an additive identity (0) and a multiplicative identity (1). For the so-called zero ring which constists of just the single element 0 they are the same. It is it's own additive identity and multiplicative identity.

2006-11-03 06:25:08 · answer #4 · answered by modulo_function 7 · 0 0

yes

a=1,b=1
a^2=a^2
a*b=b^2
a^2-a*b=a^2-b^2
a(a-b)=(a+b)(a-b)
a=a+b
0=b
0=1

2006-11-03 06:01:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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