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and do you think that two democracies could go to war against each other sometime in the future?

2006-11-03 00:43:03 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Government

16 answers

At the time of the First World War, Germany was an Absolute Monarchy, governed by Kaiser Wilhelm; in 1939 at the start of the Second World War, it is arguable that Germany was a democracy, as although the Nazis had been democratically elected to the Reichstag (Parliament), they were not the majority Party, and had been handed power by the senile Chancellor Hindenburg. They had also suspended all elections and banned all other political parties, so they did not meet the accepted criteria of being a democracy.

As for today: two democracies had a small war earlier this year - Israel and Lebanon are both democracies, so the answer to that part of yor question is "yes".

2006-11-03 02:19:29 · answer #1 · answered by Timothy M 3 · 0 0

Yes in WWI ... with Kaiser ("king") Wilhelm as the figurehead. The government was similar to that of Great Britain. The causes of the war however, were far overriding the nature of the governments in Europe at the time and more related to the various alliances between some and against others. Read the book "The Guns Of August" (Tuchman) and find the amazingly dysfunctional alliances and leadership that allowed events to throw first a few nations and then the whole world into war.

NO in WWII. The invasion of Poland in 1939 by the Nazi power (National Socialists - under the Chancellor Hitler - actually a dictator) was 6 years after the democratic government had folded and Hitler took charge.

Wars are usually driven by friction over one resource or another (over time - cotton, land, seaports, trade routes, oil, and even farmland). The character of wars is usually driven by politics (communism vs capitalism) or religion (crusades) or family connections (tribalism in Iraq for instance) .. or a combination.

2006-11-03 00:56:49 · answer #2 · answered by Me3TV 2 · 1 0

No it wasn't a democracy during the War Years. It was dictatorship. Also it's possible that two democracies can go to war since they may be countries with arrogant leaders or something else could trigger another war.

2006-11-03 00:50:46 · answer #3 · answered by Peaches 1 · 0 0

no it wasn't in both. In WW 1 there still was the emperor Wilhelm, called KAISER. In WW 2 Hitler was governing and it was a dictatorship, not a democracy at all.There has been a gap for democracy after WW 1 with the Republic of Weimar. This ended up with the elections of 1933, when Hitler took power.

2006-11-03 00:55:37 · answer #4 · answered by Milady 3 · 0 0

I think Germany was a democracy before WWI. Though it was more a military state by the outbreak.

It was certainly a democracy between the wars, but by the outbreak of WWII was a dictatorship.

2006-11-03 00:48:27 · answer #5 · answered by lordandmaker 3 · 0 0

Yes and no, in both cases Germany was a democracy in name only by the time both world wars started. In the first case, the German Parliament had been badly distorted into a kind of Junta years before the war began by Otto Von Bismark who considered democracy a waste of time. In the second case, Hitler shifted much of the power to himself by staging a series of crisis such as the Reichstag's Fire which he utilized ultimately to grab more power for himself.

2006-11-03 00:48:27 · answer #6 · answered by Huey from Ohio 4 · 4 0

Yes Germany was a democracy until the Enabling Act which gave Hitler dictorial powers on March 23rd 1933.
Hitler was voted into power by the people though he tried to seize power illegally (Beer Hall Putsch) but failed and was sent to prison (where he wrote Mein Kamp - The Hitler diaries) he went for the democratic approach.

2006-11-03 00:45:01 · answer #7 · answered by Spadesboffin 3 · 0 0

Yes, because both leaders at first and second world wars were come to being through election.

2006-11-03 01:00:39 · answer #8 · answered by Berhane Gebreyesus Habtu 4 · 0 0

I ought to respond to by using fact the previous solutions completely lack historic perspective. From approximately 1933, Jews have been forbidden to paintings interior the professions. 1934 - marriage and intercourse between Jews and non-Jews forbidden. After that there grew to become into merely a sprint a pause, yet you ought to undergo in recommendations that criminal secure practices for Jews grew to become into withdrawn. Nazis ought to insult or sick-manage them at will. 1938 - Kristallnacht - it grew to become into then that the Jewish tragedy somewhat began. Synagogues have been closed whilst no longer destroyed, and Jews had to positioned on the celebrity of David. 1939-40 many Jews have been moved east to the ghettos in Poland. 1942-3 the final Jews have been cleared out east to the dying camps.

2016-12-28 11:44:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The first question has been answered (yes it was, albeit a comprimised one)

The second question will shortly be put to the test: Iran has a democraticly elected government.

2006-11-03 01:05:18 · answer #10 · answered by WikiJo 6 · 0 0

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