It seems that in a word like "get," the "g" is not fricative, however in a word like "range," it is. Am I right?
2006-11-02 16:23:23 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
No, you are not correct.
The "g" in the word "get" is a voiced velar stop.
The "g" in the word "range" is a voiced alveloar affricate.
The "g" is a glottal fricative in English in some words that are borrowed from Spanish, such as "Geraldo".
An affricate, such as the "j" sound in "range" is actually considered to be a combination of a stop and a fricative. In this case, it's a voiced alveolar stop [d] followed by a voiced post-alveolar affricate [can't make the symbol here].
English is famous for not having much correspondence between the spelling system and the sound system. In other words, there is not a one-to-one relationship between letters and sounds in English. That's why it's important to have an alphabet like the IPA. Here's a link that has an IPA chart where you can click to hear examples of the sounds:
http://phonetics.ucla.edu/course/chapter1/chapter1.html
2006-11-03 16:29:14 · answer #1 · answered by drshorty 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, fricative would apply more to the letters where the sounds are produced by a forcing of air as in "f" or "s" - effff, esss. The letter "g" whether in 'get' or 'range', does not require that.
2006-11-02 16:42:49 · answer #2 · answered by Oenophile... (Lynn) 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hrmmm.
i suggest that you look up the ""International Phonetic Alphabet"". the sounds that are created in a word are not really based on the sounds that that particular letter make. for instance the letter "a"- words like "patience, apple, custard, bastard". the letter a in all these words are pronounced differently. and this occurs not because of that letter a- it depends on how that word has been transcribed.
for your "g". in a word like "get" it is fricative. because the sound made is "g..." but the sound made in "range" doesnt come from the "g..." sound- its the "dz" (imagine the beginning sound of the word "jam") sound. so you are actually talking about two entirely different sounds and they cannot be compared.
really, check up the IPA for the english language. you can even refer to your dictionary. the breakdown of pronunciations.
2006-11-02 16:35:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anna D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fricatives are based on phoenetic sounds, not letters of the alphabet for the reasons you state, A g in spelling can be hard, soft, silent or even take the sound of an f.
2006-11-02 16:33:20 · answer #4 · answered by fancyname 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The letter g has two different sounds in English. The International Phonetic Alphabet symbol "g" is plosive. The g that sounds more like j is a different symbol and is fricative.
2006-11-02 16:32:19 · answer #5 · answered by allieluvsorli 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The sound produced by a [g] is voiced, fricative and velar. But it depends on the pronunciation of the word. In this case the sound produced when pronouncing the /g/ in "range" is a dz (z is cursive). it makes the same sound in "judge".
2006-11-02 16:37:43 · answer #6 · answered by rocioo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The g in "get" is a voiced velar stop, while the "soft" g in "range" is actually a voiced affricate.
2006-11-02 16:37:42 · answer #7 · answered by rorose 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋