2006-11-02 14:39:08 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
What he considers himself is his business. But that doesn't change the fact. I guess he can be delusional about himself if he wants to, but to what end?
If a man has sex with a man, he IS a homosexual.
2006-11-02 14:42:32 · answer #1 · answered by GORDO BLAKHART 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
A man can have relations with another guy and tell himself things such as "I don't like guys and he just touched me, I never touched him, so it's not really gay" or "I was the dominant guy, so I wasn't like a woman" or "I only did it because it was easily attainable and there were no feelings involved." It is excusing behavior to not be labeled with the negativity of being gay in a culture that is not very accepting.
Denial (not just a river in Egypt).
2006-11-02 22:54:29 · answer #2 · answered by χριστοφορος ▽ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1) He is sexually attracted to women as well as is, therefore, bisexual.
2) He is in love with the man, and sexually and emotionally satisfied with him, despite being unattracted to any other man and being sexually attracted to women. Love is gender blind.
3) His attraction to the man is a fluke- he is sexually attracted to women in general, but there's something about this dude . . .
4) He hates the term 'gay', doesn't want to be associated with it, but still wants to have sex with men. So he just doesn't call himself that.
5) He didn't have sex because he was sexually attracted, but for various reasons: just to get release, he was raped/molested, etc.
Those are all that I can imagine.
2006-11-02 23:25:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why not?Through out life I have heard of both men and women having sex with the same sex, objects and animals. In the heat of the moment anything may be possible. I think there is a difference between having sex and wanting an intimate relationship in all aspects with the same sex. Who knows...maybe it boils down to self control.
2006-11-02 23:04:24 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Statistics indicate that 64.3% of males have intentionally touched another male in a sexual manner by age 25.
2006-11-02 22:45:00 · answer #5 · answered by Isis 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You could have "relations" with a man and be bi, or even just curious.
2006-11-02 22:40:46 · answer #6 · answered by ByTheSea 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Beats me but adult men do it A L L the time.
2006-11-02 23:14:11 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
prison? watching a football game?
i mean, "relations"?
that can mean anything from talking to focking
2006-11-02 22:40:04 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
he just want to experience it............he can be a bi if he like both gender but if he only attracted to male then i guess he is Homosexual ...he might want to deny it....I don't find anything wrong with being a homosexual..............as long as they stay away from my BF.....
2006-11-02 23:04:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe he's bi. Who knows People convince themselves of anything they want to, don't you realize that.....
2006-11-02 22:42:00 · answer #10 · answered by silhouette 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋