a) Let a be the probability that a car is at Midway, b be the probability that the car is at O'Hare, and c be the probability that the car is at Loop. These may be summarized as the vector [a, b, c]. You know that after the transition matrix is applied to [1, 0, 0] (i.e. a car that is definitely rented from midway) will yield [.6, .2, .2]. Similarly, you know that T([0, 1, 0]) is [.1, .8, .1] and T([0, 0, 1]) is [.1, .2, .7]. So the transition matrix T must be:
[.6 .1 .1]
[.2 .8 .2]
[.2 .1 .7]
b) just compute T^2([1, 0, 0]). This gives you [.4, .32, .28], so the probability that it is at the loop after two rentals is .28
c) To find this you have to compute the limit, as n→∞, of T^n. This is best done by finding an eigenbasis of T- First we find the characteristic polynomial:
[.6-x .1 .1] \
[.2 .8-x .2] | - determinant of this
[.2 .1 .7-x] /
(.6-x) (.8-x) (.7-x) + .004 + .002 - .02 (.8-x) - .02 (.6-x) -.02 (.7-x)
-x³ + 2.1x² - 1.4x + 0.3
Setting this equal to zero, we find the roots of this polynomial, and therefore the eigenvalues of the matrix are:
x=1, x=.5, x=.6
To find the corresponding eigenvectors, we find the kernel of T-xI, where I is the identity matrix, and x is one of the eigenvalues. For x=1, we find the kernel of:
[-.4 .1 .1]
[.2 -.2 .2]
[.2 .1 -.3]
The rref of this is:
[1 0 -2/3]
[0 1 -5/3]
[0 0 0]
So the eigenvector for the eigenvalue 1 is [2/3, 5/3, 1] (or any scalar multiple of that vector). Similar methods allow you to find the two other eigenvectors [1, 0, -1] and [0, 1, -1]. This gives you the eigenbasis matrix S:
[2/3 1 0]
[5/3 0 1]
[3/3 -1 -1]
Compute its inverse, S^-1:
[.3 .3 .3]
[.8 -.2 -.2]
[-.5 .5 -.5]
And thus you can write the original matrix T as SMS^-1, where M is:
[1 0 0]
[0 .5 0]
[0 0 .6]
Multiply it out just to check your work. Now that we have diagonalized T, it is easy to find large powers of it, since for any 3 by 3 diagonal matrix D having diagonal elements (D_1, D_2, D_3), D^n is the diagonal matrix with elements (D_1^n, D_2^n, D_3^n). And T^n = SMS^-1 SMS^-1 SMS^-1... SMS^-1. Canceling the S^-1 S pairs, we have T^n = SM^nS^-1, and computing M^n is easy. Taking the limit as n→∞, we have M^n =
[1 0 0]
[0 0 0]
[0 0 0]
So multiplying our final product, we have:
[.2 .2. 2]
[.5 .5 .5]
[.3 .3 .3]
Thus, regardless of where the car starts out, over the long run, it will have a 20% chance of ending up at Midway, 50% chance of ending up at O'Hare, and a 30% chance of ending up at Loop.
And yes, this was a long problem. Most of the work was done in diagonalizing the matrix T, so if you have access to a computer algebra system, and your teacher has low requirements for showing work, I highly recommend that you let it do all the tedious work of diagonalizing the matrix.
2006-11-02 12:00:32
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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