in which circumstances is profit incentive greater?

Question

under conditions of extreme range of pay/hr [like 1,000,000 x average, to 1000th of avg, as we have today, with 99% paid less than avg & 1% paid more than avg, 90% paid from 10th to 1000th of avg]

or under conditions of less extreme range of pay/hr?

if profit is incentive, then higher pay must be more incentive - & under less extreme range of pay/hr, 99 x as many have higher pay - 90% have 10-1000 x higher pay - ie, 10-1000 x more incentive

with less extreme pay/hr range, incentive is shared - 100% have the incentive of fairpay for work - with extreme pay/hr range, only 1% have incentive - they have superincentive, and 99% have sub-incentive - 90% have super sub-incentive - with less extreme pay/hr range, there is equal opportunity - with extreme pay/hr range, very unequal opportunity - with extreme range, equal effort will on avg produce very unequal results - bill gates is not working any harder than billions of workers - less hard than many homemakers [50% of workforce]

Answer 1

What's wrong with you? Since you already have your own answer to the question, then why bother to post it in the first place?