The absence of evidence is not the evidence of absence.
See you can't prove someone wrong unless you have definate proof it didn't exist and just because you haven't found any evidence it is true does not make it untrue.
2006-11-02 04:00:47 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
In a court of law it does. But I agree with you 100%.
2006-11-02 04:04:19 · answer #1 · answered by TotallylovesTodd! 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Watch Boondocks much? It isn't true or untrue but the evidence of absence is given strong support by the absence of evidence.
2006-11-02 12:06:25 · answer #2 · answered by starblazer713 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Same old Republican talking point, the point is N. Korea`s WMD program is much more advanced then Iraq`s ever was and Iraq had nothing to do with 911.
2006-11-02 12:05:30 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I understood it perfectly, mainly because i was brought upon all of those phrases and such by a wise grandpa
2006-11-02 21:37:09 · answer #4 · answered by awesome 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The problem with that sort of thinking is it can lead you to do things under false assumptions or beliefs-- like go to war.
2006-11-02 12:04:29 · answer #5 · answered by dapixelator 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I don't know myself. It seems self explanatory. Go figure. People just do not understand how to put their minds to work.
2006-11-02 12:10:58 · answer #6 · answered by You Ask & I Answer!!! 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
that's cool
2006-11-02 12:03:32 · answer #7 · answered by wwjd 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
THANK YOU FOR ENLIGHTENING US PERRY MASON.
2006-11-02 12:03:18 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋